Results 21 - 38 of 38
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: dwilliamson Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | The Suffering of the Church | Acts 8:2 | dwilliamson | 217635 | ||
Dear Mike I'm sure all of us have made a blanket statement at some stage which was later shown to be incorrect. I certainly appreciate your honesty and willingness to "concede and accept correction". Hope we all are marked by that same spirit. And I say that first of all to myself! In Him David |
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22 | The Gospel of Christ | Romans | dwilliamson | 217558 | ||
In the Acts the Gospel is Preached. In the epistle to the Romans the Gospel is Explained. In Galatians the Gospel is defended. The epistle to the Romans is a watertight argument concerning the "righteousness of God" as revealed in the "Gospel of God...concerning His Son, Jesus Christ our Lord" (Rom 1v1-3). Very broadly speaking the subjects dealt with in Romans are as follows: Ch1-3 reveals Condemnation Ch4-5 reveals Justification Ch6-8 reveals Sanctification and Glorification Ch9-11 reveals Election Ch12-16 reveals Consecration. For a proper understanding of the Gospel doctrinally, a study of Pauls letter to the Romans is essential. Regards, David |
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23 | The Gospel of Christ | Romans | dwilliamson | 217578 | ||
Dear all Apologies for the use of my brothers username - it was completely inadvertant and was the result of my sharing his computer briefly. I think it was about 12.30am this morning (by our time) and so I was possibly bleary eyed at the time. Also, the fact that I signed myself as David on the posts I think is sufficient to show that this was unintentional. Sorry!! As to the welcomes I've received to the forum - I appreciate them all very much. Doc, Thanks for the advice/direction as to where to obtain a good summary of Luthers life. In Him David |
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24 | Need interpretation for these verses | Rom 2:12 | dwilliamson | 217738 | ||
Hello eascusa Hope you dont mind if I answer these questions in 2 separate notes, one for each question. As to question 1. The context of Romans 2 is important to the understanding of these verses I believe. In Romans Ch1v18-3v20 Paul is showing that all people, whatever their background, are "guilty before God" (Romans 3v20). He first deals with the Gentile world in its idolatery etc in Ch1v18-32 and shows how they have rejected the witness of God in Creation - thus they are guilty. Then I believe (some people may have a slightly different understanding than this) he deals with self-righteous people whether Jew or Gentile Ch2v1-16. Then finally, from Ch2v17 through to Ch3v20 he deals with the Jew exclusively, giving a final summing up in the last few verses. Now, in the section of which you speak there are 2 types of people considered - the Jew and the Gentile. The Gentile is "apart from the law" in the sense that the law was not given to him as it was to the nation of Israel. The Jew however doess have the law. How will God deal righteously in judging both? Those who have not the law will not be judged by the law per se, but rather because they have not responded to the entreaties of their Conscience - see v15 "Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another". On the other hand, those who do have the law will be judged by their response to the Commandments contained in it which they were aware of and still refuse to obey. Hope this is helpful In Him David |
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25 | Need interpretation for these verses | Rom 2:12 | dwilliamson | 217739 | ||
Hello again eascusa As to question 2. In 1 Corinthians Ch 5 Paul is writing concerning how discipline should be carried out in the local church. The person who has sinned in this chapter is a person who was in the fellowship of the local church - a place of privilege and protection. Because of the severe nature of the sin committed, he is to be excommunicated from that fellowship - see v13 "put away from among yourselves that wicked person". Now, in putting such a person away from the church I believe they are "delivering him unto Satan" in the sense that he is put out into the sphere where Satan has control - i.e. the world. God who judges those who are without (see v13) uses even the attacks of Satan to discipline his people in order that they be restored to fellowhip first with God Himself and then with the church. So, what is intended result from this discipline? The answer is "for the destruction of the flesh" i.e. So that the fleshly nature which has so taken over the life of this believer might be nullified in its power over him. And "the spirit saved in the day of the Lord Jesus" i.e. That his spiritual life might be recovered in view of the Judgment seat of Christ. Again hope this is helpful. In Him David PS. I should note that the translation I have used is the KJV. |
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26 | agreeing with chuch | 1 Cor 1:10 | dwilliamson | 218818 | ||
Hello Alachi Welcome to the forum. In 1 Corinthians 1v10 we read that Paul desired that the church at Corinth be "perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment". This is the ideal position in relation to any church, God desires unity - BUT this is only possible as the church itself is in agreement with the Word of God. The final court of appeal for every Christian is the Word of God - so Paul reminds his readers in 1 Corinthians 14 that if a person claims to be spiritual he should "acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord" (1 Cor 14v37). To summarize - if our "church" is in accord with the word of God it is very important for us to agree with it, if it is not so then we should disagree! It is worth noting however that the manner in which we should disagree would be depend on the level of error we feel to be prevalent in our local church. For example, if there is fundamental error concerning the person and work of Christ we would be better elsewhere. If there is a difference of opinion merely on the interpretation of scriptures which are very difficult to be understood then perhaps we should pray that all will come to the right understanding over time and concentrate on being a help in our local church. Hope this is helpful - if you had something more specific in mind perhaps we could give a better reply. David |
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27 | Spiritual gifts? | 1 Cor 12:10 | dwilliamson | 219319 | ||
I dont know whether this should be posted as a question or note following up your answer Bradk. We know that there are lists of "gifts" given in Romans 12, 1 Corinthians 12, and Ephesians 4. Without moving beyond the realm of exposition too far - Can I ask the forum members whether they believe these lists to be exhaustive? Are all spiritual gifts recorded for us in the scriptures? Thanks David |
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28 | U.F.O's | 2 Tim 1:9 | dwilliamson | 217610 | ||
Hello mamayama1 I must say I agree absolutely with the statements of BradK and Makarios. The Word of God is described as "the faith" (see Jude 1v3 among many other Scriptures). If this means anything, it means that the Word of God should be the basis of all that we believe. The Scripture speaks of "deceitful spirits" - see for example 1 Timothy 4v1 "But the Spirit explicitly says that in later times some will fall away from the faith, paying attention to deceitful spirits and doctrines of demons..." Experiences may seem real and impressive to us but we cannot build our understanding of God upon our experiences. If we want to know God, if we want to know His will etc - we find it in the Bible. One statement that I am alarmed by in your question is "I am taught that scripture has its own message to the reader". Does this mean that the same Scripture has a different interpretation depending on who we are? This is not true - "God is not the author of confusion" (1 Corinthians 14v33) which would certainly be the result if each could interpret Scripture as they desired! No my friend "All Scripture is given...that the man of God may be perfect (i.e complete), throughly furnished unto all good works". We have the Holy Spirit within to enable us to interpret the Scriptures of truth and this should be (and is) enough for us. My advice would be that you begin a daily reading program and ask the Lord to reveal by His Spirit the truth of what is contained in the Scripture in its context. This will bring stability and joy and will leave you no longer craving for extra-biblical experiences! Hope this is helpful. In Christ David |
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29 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | dwilliamson | 217638 | ||
Titus 1v1-2 tells us that Paul is a "servant of God, and an apostle of Jesus Christ...in hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began". (AV). NASB renders "promised long ages ago" but I don't know that that is a very accurate rendering although it probably does give the thought! In v2 we learn that eternal life is a Prospect "in hope of", we also learn that it was Promised; then in v3 we learn that it was Preached by the apostle Paul. My question is - When/how/where did God PROMISE "eternal life...before the world began"? Does this just relate to His eternal purpose or is there a written promise in Scripture? Thanks David |
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30 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | dwilliamson | 217653 | ||
Searcher Thats the way I had thought of it. As you say "The promise was there, but not written, because there was no writing." In a sense we could say that the purpose in Gods heart was as good as a promise - it definitely would be fulfilled! There is no doubt, as others have said , that there is reference to eternal life (in one form or another) in the OT - but my query was regarding the fact that it was promised "BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN". Thanks In Him David |
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31 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | dwilliamson | 217654 | ||
Makarios Thanks for that. I think I'm right in saying that John usually refers to "eternal life" in the present. He is speaking of the fact that we have received the same life as the Father - the quality of life! Paul on the other hand refers to "eternal life" in the future because he is thinking of the time when we will enter into all the fulness of that life and enjoy it without restriction. I can't just understand your final statement "This eternal life is in Christ, who was before the world began (John 17:5) and is through Christ alone - this is the promise of eternal life to us before the world began." I'd appreciate it if you would clarify exactly what you mean as it sounds interesting! Are you saying that Christ (in glory, prior to His Incarnation) is Himself the promise of eternal life? In Him David |
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32 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | dwilliamson | 217666 | ||
Thanks very much Makarios. In Him David |
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33 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | dwilliamson | 217673 | ||
Thank you Lexus That's an interesting point in relation to the Garden of Eden/Paradise. I would agree that God's original intention will always have it's fulfilment. Someone has said "God's first thought is His final thought!" While Satan appears to have gained a victory by the entrance of sin, God will see to it that every vestige of sin is removed from His creation. (See Romans 8v19-21 "For the anxious longing of the creation waits eagerly for the revealing of the sons of God. For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it, in hope that the creation itself also will be set free from its slavery to corruption into the freedom of the glory of the children of God.") This balance of things in Gods purpose is interesting - See eg. 1 Corinthians 15v21-22 "For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive." I hadn't perhaps related that to the immediate context because the promise of eternal life spoken of here was "BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN" (KJV). I think the answer has been given to my mind by Searcher in a previous post - I will think about what has been said on this forum but! Thank you brother In Him David |
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34 | Parts of Burnt Offering and Mark 12v30? | Hebrews | dwilliamson | 217499 | ||
Hello All Ref: Lev 1v6-9 "He shall then skin the burnt offering and cut it into its pieces. The sons of Aaron the priest shall put fire on the altar and arrange wood on the fire. Then Aaron's sons the priests shall arrange the pieces, the head and the suet over the wood which is on the fire that is on the altar. Its entrails, however, and its legs he shall wash with water. And the priest shall offer up in smoke all of it on the altar for a burnt offering, an offering by fire of a soothing aroma to the LORD." Just thinking about this scripture today. Does anyone see a link between this type of the Lord and the words spoken by the Lord in Mark 12v30 "AND YOU SHALL LOVE THE LORD YOUR GOD WITH ALL YOUR HEART, AND WITH ALL YOUR SOUL, AND WITH ALL YOUR MIND, AND WITH ALL YOUR STRENGTH"? |
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35 | Parts of Burnt Offering and Mark 12v30? | Hebrews | dwilliamson | 217514 | ||
Lionheart Thanks for your time brother. Specifically what I was interested in was the correlation between the parts of the burnt offering (head, fat, inwards, legs (AV)) and the quotation given from Mark 12v30. Note that the head links with the "mind", the legs with the "strength", the inwards with the "heart", the fat with the "soul". So, as typified in the burnt offering of old, when the Lord was upon earth He was completely devoted to the Father in relation to His intellect, His physical strength, His inward affection, His emotions. They were all on the altar - bringing a sweet savour of rest and delight to His Father. The fulfilment of this is when he gave Himself for us as an "offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweet smelling savour" (Ephesians 5v2) at the Cross. Just wondered if anyone else had any further thought to expand upon this. In Him David |
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36 | Un-repented Sin | Heb 6:6 | dwilliamson | 217515 | ||
Dear Vintage I've just read your question (Ireland is a bit behind you guys). I think the context of 1 John is important to your question. "If we confess our sins He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness" (KJV). Before we were saved we are referred to as being "enemies", "ungodly, "sinners" (Rom 5)etc. Having trusted Christ as Saviour we are now in the family of God (John 1v12). In the first epistle of John, John is dealing with the family of God, thus when He speaks of forgiveness it is forgiveness within the sphere of the family. Prior to conversion our sin would bring upon us penal judgement, now however we are in the family of God and "we have an advocate with the FATHER" (1Jn 2) - note, it is not with "God" as distant from us (ie. relationship with the Father is never broken, He is still our Father). The Advocate who is in the Fathers presence pleads (by virtue of His being there) the value of His blood on our behalf. So, although sin is extremely serious and should be confessed and forsaken immediately, NEVER is relationship broken between the child of God and His Father. One has put it like this "There is nothing stronger than the link of Union, there is nothing so slender as the link of Communion". When we sin against our Father we are out of communion and need to be forgiven and restored to that communion, but our Union with Him as being in His Family is never broken. Hope this is helpful. In Him David |
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37 | Un-repented Sin | Heb 6:6 | dwilliamson | 217540 | ||
Vintage I understand your problem. As to Hebrews Ch6v4-6 the answer lies in the context of the book. This epistle was written to early Hebrew people who had professed to become Christians. They had been associated with Judaism in the past but had accepted (at least nominally) that Jesus was the Messiah. Now, the danger was that having taken such a stand, when persecution came they would go back to side with the nation that had crucified their Messiah. In Hebrews 6 note the following v1-3 The pronouns are "us" and "we" v4-8 The pronouns are "they" and "them" v9-12 The pronouns are "you" and "your". I submit the following as my understanding of the passage. In v1-3 the group spoken of incorporates everyone who professed that Jesus was the Messiah (whether they had truly received Him or not). In v4-8 the group spoken of are Jewish people with unique privileges and blessings who had come under great influence and knew that He was the Messiah but, they openly rejected Him and took sides with the nation of Israel against Him therefore they "again crucify to themselves the Son of God and put Him to an open shame" Hebrews 6v6. From v9 onwards true believers are the subject - see v9 "But, beloved, we are convinced of better things concerning you, and things that accompany salvation". The writer to the Hebrews is convinced concerning his readers of what? That they have salvation - and therefore what is stated in v4-8 will not be true of them. I will give a fuller exposition of above later if you require - i'm not at home with my notes at present! As to the 1 John 3v6-8 passage. It must be remembered that John writes in Black and white terms. The tense he uses in respect of sin is present continuous as I remember and he is stating that a person who is in the family of God will not continue sinning as a habit of life. The issue in John is this, we have received the same life as our Father "eternal life" (if we are born again), thus we will show family characteristics. So a person who professes to be in Gods family and yet consistently lives in sin and has no realisation of the fact that God is Light is not in the family of God at all. Salvation cannot be lost, see for example John10 v27-30. It does not depend on me, it depends on Christ and the value of His blood. Again, hope this is helpful, if I can clarify anything let me know. In Him David |
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38 | Un-repented Sin | Heb 6:6 | dwilliamson | 217559 | ||
Thank you both Doc and stjohn for your kind welcome to the forum. In Him, David |
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