Results 281 - 300 of 300
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Truthfinder Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
281 | Jesus Created or Creator??? | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96011 | ||
Hi Christian7, You say in this post that Jesus is as much the Creator as is God. That spells: Jesus is not actually God himself. Just as John 1:1 says, and the Word was "with" God. How can you be "with" someone and at the same time be him? So, I agree with you here. Jesus many times referred to his father as "his God". So he couldn't be Almighty God, too. The Father Jehovah never refers to his Son as his God and Jesus taught us to pray to the Father, since he is our God. Truthfinder |
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282 | Where does Scripture say Jesus created? | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96016 | ||
Hi Tim, Which translation of the Bible would you prefer? As we know there are so many to choose from. What about the American Standard Version? or the New American Standard Version? Well, in the "Foreword" of the New American Standard Version, we read "This translation follows the principles used in the American Standard Version of 1901, KNOWN AS THE ROCK OF BIBLICAL HONESTY." A.S.V. 1901. John 9:38 - "And he said, Lord I believe and he worshipped him." That is he worshipped Jesus who had given him who was born blind, his sight. A footnote reads: (re. the word worshipped) "The Greek word denotes an act of reverence, whether paid to a creature (as here) or the Creator." The Greek scholar's footnotes recognize Jesus' being a "creature" a "creation". Truthfinder |
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283 | Jesus Created or Creator??? | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96026 | ||
Hi Flinky, Yes, I do know how many gods in all the Bible mentions. Some are false gods, and angels are called gods, and even some men are called by the Bible "gods". But you and I know that there is only echad elohim, ONE GOD, or only one Almighty God and then there is his beloved Son Jesus of which John 1:18 calls, the only-begotten god. And don't forget John 1:1 where Jesus is identified as the Word and "a god". Jesus again at Isaiah 9:6 a mighty god. Truthfinder |
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284 | Jesus Created or Creator??? | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96038 | ||
Hi Radioman2, Since the Greek manuscripts have no punctuation why try and make the trinity appear true? That is a dishonest translation of Hebrews 1:8 Here are four other Bible translations that translate this verse as the NWT does; “But with reference to the Son: ‘God is your throne forever and ever.’” AT, Mo, TC, By Truthfinder |
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285 | Are Footnotes Biblical Evidence? :-) | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96078 | ||
Tim, You know me better than that. You yourself many times have attributed truth and insight to the "qualifications" of Bible translators. I do not. You and I can can even translate. Allow me to ask you about the NASV. Do not their exegetical interpretations sway your way of thinking in the least? Truthfinder |
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286 | Jesus Created or Creator??? | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96080 | ||
Hi Makarios, Please choose one verse at a time and we can study it. Too many verses all at one time! I have these cataloged now and I can assure you that of all the 31,173 verses in the Bible only about 7 might lend toward supporting the trinity dogma. And of these they too can be properly translated to support the fact that Jehovah God is the only Almighty God. We have the time. Remember though, we must be interested in only what the original must have said and not biased translators nor scribes. Truthfinder |
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287 | Jesus Created or Creator??? | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96115 | ||
Hi Makarios, So, I see you truly believe what you believe? Good. That really is admirable. You mention that nothing will shake the faith that you have in your Lord or in His Holy Word. I sincerely hope that you don't think I would do that. What I show you, you will find does not contradict any other verse! Since I believe in the inerrancy of Scripture, my beliefs are NOT contradicted by any single verse. Thus one's faith in God's Word should be strengthened by what I show. It is faultless. Regardless, my posts are not prepared and presented in an attempt to change anyone. Many try and say that my beliefs have no Scriptural grounds. I merely show why I believe as I do from the Scriptures and scholarly research. So, select a verse, but please tell me what your understanding of that verse is and why it supports your argument. I believe our topic was whether or not Jesus was "created" or "is the one creating". Why don't we complete this first since it too is a part of the study of the validity of the trinity doctrine. Revelation 3:14 is the topic verse. The issue is the translation of the Greek word ‘arkhe’. I will now present some facts. 1). The authoritative Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature by William Arndt and F. Wilbur Gingrich says the meaning of ‘arche’ in Revelation 3:14 is ‘first cause.” 2). Bauer’s lexicon (BAGD) lists on page 112 ‘arche’ under definition number 2. The first cause. 3). Liddell and Scott’s Greek-English Lexicon lists “beginning” as its first meaning of ar·khe´. (Oxford, 1968, p. 252) Therefore we conclude that there are at least two possibilities, the one by the first two authorities (definition number 2,) and the one by the third authority and also chosen by the NASB, RS, KJ, Dy, CC, NWT and numerous other Bible translations, “beginning”. This selection would mean that Jesus was created. What I find interesting is that Bauer’s lexicon provides no biblical passages as parallels to that meaning it suggests. Also, BAGD goes on to say regarding the use of arkhe in Rev. 3:14 “the meaning beginning equals first created is linguistically possible.” Possible? Well, notice the use of similar language in the NT. A check of all the occurrences in the NT of arkhe followed by a genitive expression (as in Rev. 3:14) shows that it always denotes a beginning or first part of something. Examples: Mt 24:8; Mr 13:8,19; John 2:11; Php 4:15; Heb 5:12; 6:1; 7:3; 2 Peter 3:4. Even when used without a genitive expression arkhe means ‘beginning’ some 32 times. Mt 19:4,8; 24:21; Mr 1:1 etc. Of the remaining 13 occurrences of arkhe in NT, 2 are used for the ‘four corners” (“extremities” NWT) of the earth. The final 11 are used to denote ‘governments” or “rulers,” and with such a meaning are always used with other expressions denoting “power” (Gr dynamis) or “authority” (Gr. Exousia). Thus, the way I see it, the use of arkhe in general, and when used with a genitive expression specifically, favors the meaning “beginning” in Revelation 3:14. The logical conclusion is that the one being quoted at Revelation 3:14 is a creation, the first of God’s creations, that he had a beginning. Compare Proverbs 8:22, where, as many Bible commentators agree, the Son is referred to as wisdom personified. And according to RS, NE, and JB, the one there speaking is said to be “created.” Truthfinder |
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288 | Jesus Created or Creator??? | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96123 | ||
Hi Radioman2, This discussion of Proverbs 8:22 goes back to c.296-373 CE and is much more involved than what the apologetics have here. I have studied it in depth as my translations of the Hebrew texts will show. Sometime in the future though, I will present the arguments on both sides (more than these here presented; pro and con). It is a study in itself, I assure you, and an interesting one at that. But thank you for your contribution. Truthfinder |
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289 | Jesus is wisdom argument leads nowhere. | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96661 | ||
Hi Pastor Glenn, The point about wisdom is logically that wisdom had no beginning since it is one of the four attributes of the Almighty. Thus wisdom is pictorial of something that had a beginning and a direct correlation in both thought and wording exists in Proverbs and Col 1:15 for drawing an accurate and logical conclusion. Jesus, in his prehuman existence, was as Col 1:15 tells us according to the NJB, “the first-born of all creation.” He was “the beginning of God’s creation.” (Revelation 3:14, RS, Catholic edition). “Beginning” [Greek, ar·khe´] cannot rightly be interpreted to mean that Jesus was the ‘beginner’ of God’s creation. In his Bible writings, John uses various forms of the Greek word ar·khe´ more than 20 times, and these always have the common meaning of “beginning.” Yes, Jesus was created by God as the beginning of God’s invisible creations. But now notice how closely those references to the origin of Jesus correlate with expressions uttered by the figurative “Wisdom” in the Bible book of Proverbs: “Yahweh created me, first-fruits of his fashioning, before the oldest of his works. Before the mountains were settled, before the hills, I came to birth; before he had made the earth, the countryside, and the first elements of the world.” (Again according to the New Jerusalem Bible) While the term “Wisdom” is used to personify the one whom God created, most scholars agree that it is actually a figure of speech for Jesus as a spirit creature prior to his human existence. What is really interesting about the rebuttals made by pro-Trinitarians during the Nicene confession is they were using the LXX (regarding it as “inspired”) and it, the LXX, translates the Hebrew qanah with the Greek, ektizo (a form of ktizo, meaning “create” or “make”). Thus they failed to provide an acceptable interpretation to prove Jesus was not Created. This is seen from Athanasius’ (c. 296-373CE) effort, over many pages to conclude, “The Lord created me a beginning of His ways,’ as if to say, “My Father hath prepared for Me a body, and has created Me for men in behalf of their salvation.”--Four Discourses Against the Arians, Discourse 2, chap. 19. P 374. Yes, Athanasius interprets Proverbs 8:22 as a reference to the Word’s (Jesus Christ’s) sojourn in the flesh. As “Wisdom” in his prehuman existence, Jesus goes on to say that he was “by his [God’s] side, a master craftsman.” (Proverbs 8:30, JB) In harmony with this role as master craftsman, Colossians 1:16 says of Jesus that “through him God created everything in heaven and on earth.”—Today’s English Version (TEV). So it was by means of this master worker, his junior partner, as it were, that Almighty God created all other things. The Bible summarizes the matter this way: “For us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things . . . and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things.” 1 Corinthians 8:6, RS, Catholic edition. Truthfinder |
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290 | Jesus Created or Creator??? | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96741 | ||
Hi Christian7, In Isaiah 9:6, I would capitalize all the proper nouns in that sentence, as that would be proper English grammar. All the proper nouns would include Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace since the context dictates that by prefacing it with "and his name will be called". Truthfinder |
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291 | Jesus is wisdom argument leads nowhere. | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96928 | ||
Hi Pastor Glenn, Yes, Glenn, In Luke 4:8 or Mat 4:10, Jesus quoted that verse of Deut 6:13 in reply to Satan where he says: “It is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’” I see here that Jesus is saying that the acceptable worship to the Sovereign One of the universe should be Jesus’ Father, Jehovah and to direct our worship to him (Jesus as the universal Sovereign) would be contradictory to this mandate. How do you read it? . "You shall worship the LORD your God, and Him only you shall serve."' Since yhvh is replaced here in Mat 4:10 (yhvh is in Deut 6:13) in the translation you quote from, with the Hebrew word adonai or Greek kurios, do you subsequently conclude that Jesus was telling Satan to worship himself (Jesus)? If so, then that’s the whole point of our discussion. Originally yhvh was in the Bible over 6,000 times for a reason. That reason was to maintain the Father’s, the Almighty God’s true identity. You also ask: By your theology it seems that any angels could have stepped in and died for our sins. But what angel would have had power to get back up from the dead as Christ did by His own power? Jehovah God sent his only be-gotten son as John 1: 1 identifies as the “Word” and also says he was “with” God. John 1:14; 14 So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth. 15 (John bore witness about him, yes, he actually cried out—this was the one who said [it]—saying: “The one coming behind me has advanced in front of me, because he existed before me.”) 16 For we all received from out of his fullness, even undeserved kindness upon undeserved kindness. 17 Because the Law was given through Moses, the undeserved kindness and the truth came to be through Jesus Christ. 18 No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him. This verse also tells us Glenn, that man has “seen” Jesus but not God. It tells us too that Jesus, the only-begotten god has explained the Almighty God. The unparalleled “unity” in thought and love is there between Jesus and Jehovah. That is why Jesus could rightly say in John 14:6; 6 Jesus said to him: “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. 7 If YOU men had known me, YOU would have known my Father also; from this moment on YOU know him and have seen him.” 8 Philip said to him: “Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.” 9 Jesus said to him: “Have I been with YOU men so long a time, and yet, Philip, you have not come to know me? He that has seen me has seen the Father [also]. How is it you say, ‘Show us the Father’? 10 Do you not believe that I am in union with the Father and the Father is in union with me? I stress again the point that Jesus makes in verse 10, “I am in union with the Father”, not that he is the Father, Almighty God. 1 John 2:5 shows that we as mere men also can be in union with the Father by saying, . 5 But whoever does observe his word, truthfully in this [person] the love of God has been made perfect. By this we have the knowledge that we are in union with him." I honestly believe that if the Jewish scibes has not changed the original "inspired Scriptures" that this difference of thought would not be here between you and me. Truthfinder |
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292 | Jesus is wisdom argument leads nowhere. | Rev 3:14 | Truthfinder | 96929 | ||
Hi Colin, No. I believe Abraham could not have made a greater sacrifice than God. Truthfinder |
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293 | Our name erased or added to Book of Life | Rev 13:8 | Truthfinder | 87972 | ||
Does "all" always mean "all"? Here's a couple of examples where it does not. 1) Let's read Paul’s words at 2 Timothy 1:15, evidently written from Rome about the year 65 C.E., and may indicate that the strong persecution then beginning to rage against the Christians on the part of the Roman authorities had now caused many of the Christian ‘men of Asia’ to shun association with the imprisoned apostle Paul, turning away from Paul at a critical time. The expression “all the men in the district of Asia” can not imply a total turning away of all Christians in Asia, because Paul immediately thereafter commended Onesiphorus, who was evidently a resident of Ephesus. 2Ti 1:16-18; 4:19. 2) Jesus' words as found at Mr 14:36, “Abba, Father, all things are possible to you; remove this cup from me. Yet not what I want, but what you want.” Yet, Titus 1:2 tells us that "God cannot lie". Thus "all" must be relative in certain situations. Truthfinder |
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294 | Our name erased or added to Book of Life | Rev 13:8 | Truthfinder | 87986 | ||
I can assure you, he sees them. Truthfinder |
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295 | Whose will causes a believer to sin? | Rev 13:8 | Truthfinder | 88017 | ||
Hi Tim, Well said Tim, simple and true. Truthfinder |
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296 | Isn’t this playing with the text? | Rev 22:18 | Truthfinder | 79197 | ||
Hi Radioman2, As you comment, Revelation 22:18,19 shows the seriousness of taking anything away or making an addition to God’s word. If the original had God’s name and it was changed with Lord or any substitute that would be seriously wrong. Likewise if it was not and added then equally that would be wrong. You be the judge after studying these 3 sites. By the way the translations that contain the Divine Name state that they have “restored” the Divine Name as opposed to “adding” it. 1) These two sites list several translations that use Jehovah in the New Testament.: http://hector3000.future.easyspace.com/yhwh.htm Also http://hector3000.future.easyspace.com/jhvh.htm 2)This site contains information that explains why Jehovah appears in the New Testament of the NWT. http://jehovah.to/exegesis/ntstudies/yhwhnt.htm 3) In this site appears the appendix of the NWT with explanation: http://jehovah.to/exegesis/translation/nwterrors.htm Truthfinder |
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297 | Isn’t this playing with the text? | Rev 22:18 | Truthfinder | 79234 | ||
Hi, Obviously you didn't read what I provided. It showed from authoritive sources that the "orignal" NOT merely Greek copies of copies must have had God's name. When these scribs changed it to kurios, that was wrong. Please re-read what I provided. The Jewish tradition was wrong. The Jews with their traditions put Jesus to death! They were no longer God's people and are not today. Truthfinder |
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298 | Originals? | Rev 22:18 | Truthfinder | 79334 | ||
Hi Tim Most believe that the nation of Israel today is still God’s chosen nation. When Jesus Christ was on earth, it was still God’s nation or channel. Any who wished to serve Jehovah had to do so in association with his chosen nation. (John 4:22) But Moses had shown that the privilege of being stewards of “the things revealed” also carried responsibilities. He said: “The things revealed belong to us and to our sons to time indefinite, that we may carry out all the words of this law.” (Deuteronomy 29:29) That “time indefinite” came to an end in 33 C.E. Why? Because, as a nation, the Jews failed to ‘carry out all the words of the law.’ Particularly, the Bible, indicates that the Jewish nation lost God’s favor and protection when they rejected his Son, Jesus Christ. (Acts 3:13, 14, 19) Jesus himself plainly told them: “The kingdom of God will be taken from you and be given to a nation producing its fruits.”—Matthew 21:43. They failed to welcome the Seed, Jesus Christ, even though the Law had been, in effect, a “tutor leading to Christ.” (Galatians 3:24) Because of this failure, Jehovah chose another channel for “the things revealed.” Paul identified it to the Ephesians when he wrote that “there might be made known through the congregation the greatly diversified wisdom of God, according to the eternal purpose that he formed in connection with the Christ, Jesus our Lord.” (Ephesians 3:10, 11) Yes, it was the Christian congregation, born at Pentecost 33 C.E., that was entrusted with the new “things revealed.” As a group, anointed Christians served as “the faithful and discreet slave” appointed to provide spiritual food at the proper time. (Matthew 24:45) What the Jewish writer of Romans 11:26 called “all Israel” he called “the Israel of God” at Galatians 6:16. But if the natural Jews in the Republic of Israel and around the globe do not make up “all Israel,” who are its members? This question is a vital one, as the natural Jews of today do not know to which of Israel’s 12 tribes they belong. They have rabbis but no priesthood, no high priest on earth, no temple at Jerusalem and no altar there on which to offer sacrifices according to the Law God gave to them through Moses. All of this has been lacking since the Romans destroyed Jerusalem in 70 C.E. There also is no evidence that the God whose name they refuse to pronounce is with them any longer as a nation. In Romans, the text you quoted, Paul could not have believed that the Israelites as a nation still had a special place with God, for the apostle expressed “great grief and unceasing pain in [his] heart” over their unresponsiveness to God’s goodness. (Romans 9:2-5) At Romans 9:6 Paul adds: “However, it is not as though the word of God [to Abraham] had failed. For not all who spring from [natural] Israel are really ‘Israel.’” Note what Paul is saying: that because the Jews rejected Christ, God no longer considered them to be Israel! The anointed congregation of Jesus Christ’s followers was now the real “Israel,” the instrument through which God would bless all mankind.—1 Peter 2:9; Galatians 3:29; 6:16; Genesis 22:18. God, though, did not reject the Jewish people as individuals, for Paul pointed out: “For I also am an Israelite.” Yes, individuals within the Jewish nation, like Paul, could become part of spiritual Israel if they accepted Christ. Only “a remnant,” a minority, chose to do so.—Romans 11:1, 5. Truthfinder |
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299 | Truthfinder, why aren't Jews His people? | Rev 22:18 | Truthfinder | 79335 | ||
Hi Searcher, Note my comments to Tim regarding your question. Truthfinder |
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300 | Originals? | Rev 22:18 | Truthfinder | 79343 | ||
Originals, As you know Tim, of course there are no "originals" of either the Hebrew nor Greek texts. The following is what I said in a previous post: The text located in the U.S.S.R.,not the original but namely, the Codex Leningrad B 19A, used for Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia (BHS), vowel-points the Tetragrammaton to read Yehwah´, Yehwih´ and a number of times Yeho·wah´, as in Ge 3:14. The edition of the Hebrew text by Ginsburg (Gins.) vowel-points YHWH to read Yeho·wah´. While many translators favor the pronunciation "Yahweh," the New World Translation continues to use the form "Jehovah" because of people's familiarity with it for centuries. Moreover, it preserves, equally with other forms, the four letters of the divine name, YHWH or JHVH. The practice of substituting titles for the divine name that developed among the Jews was applied in later copies of the Greek Septuagint, the Latin Vulgate, and many other translations, ancient and modern. Therefore, A Greek-English Lexicon, by Liddell and Scott (LS), p. 1013, states: "ho kyrios,Hebr. Yahweh, LXX Ge. 11.5, al." Also, the Greek Lexicon of the Roman and Byzantine Periods, by E. A. Sophocles, Cambridge, U.S.A., and Leipzig, 1914, p. 699, says under (Ky´ri·os): "Lord, the representative of YHVH. Sept. passim (scattered throughout)." Moreover, Dictionnaire de la Bible, by F. Vigouroux, Paris, 1926, col. 223, says that "the Septuagint and the Vulgate contain KURIOS and Dominus, "Lord," where the original contains Jehovah." Regarding the divine name, A Compendious Syriac Dictionary, edited by J. Payne Smith, Oxford, 1979 reprint, p. 298, says that Mar·ya´ "in the (Syriac) Peshita Version of the O. T. represents the Tetragrammaton." Concerning the use of the Tetragrammaton in the Christian Greek Scriptures, George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 96, 1977, p. 63: "Recent discoveries in Egypt and the Judean Desert allow us to see first hand the use of God's name in pre-Christian times. These discoveries are significant for N[ew] T[estament] studies in that they form a literary analogy with the earliest Christian documents and may explain how NT authors used the divine name. In the following pages we will set forth a theory that the divine name, YHVH (and possibly abbreviations of it), was originally written in the NT quotations of and allusions to the O[ld] T[estament] and that in the course of time it was replaced mainly with the surrogate KS [abbreviation for Ky´ri·os, "Lord"]. This removal of the Tetragram[maton], in our view, created a confusion in the minds of early Gentile Christians about the relationship between the 'Lord God' and the 'Lord Christ' which is reflected in the MS tradition of the NT text itself." For these reasons and others, the long list of Bible translations also "restored" the Divine Name in what is believed to be only what was in the original. Truthfinder |
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