Results 61 - 80 of 83
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Tara1 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | Tara1, Where are angels called gods? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112037 | ||
correction, in the above post, where I said NIV, I meant NASB. NIV transtlated elohim here as "heavenly beings", |
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62 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112049 | ||
Alpha and Omega. Who is this “A” to “Z” so to speak, according to the Scriptures? Who is this “first and last,” and “beginning and end” I will note three manuscript variations that lend support to a specific line of thought which have contributed to varying conclusions. By a study of each occurrence of these descriptions or titles, we can determine who was intended to be referred to, according to context. Rev 1:8, according to the NIV and NWT agree that the Alpha and Omega is the Almighty God who is Jehovah and there are no varying ancient manuscripts of this verse. Now let’s look at verse seven and see if the link is legitimate in identifying verse 7 to verse 8 to being Jesus. Who is the one one identified in verse 7 where it says, “the One who is, and who was, and who is to come” is given to One who is clearly distinguished from both the “seven spirits” and “Jesus Christ.” Obviously the only other one from whom “undeserved kindness and peace” could come is the Father. The “coming” of the “Alpha and Omega” in verse 8 is consistent with Jehovah’s “coming” in verse four. Revelation 6:16,17 also tell us of the Father’s coming along with the Lamb. Note the word “their“ in the phrase, “the great day of their wrath has come”. The Textus Reseptus (from which we have the KJV and Jerusalem Bible versions) has the Greek for “His” (autou). The other main manuscripts such as the Sinaitic MS of the fourth century and according to Bruce Metzger, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, 1975, “all minuscule” have the Greek word for “their” (autwn). This interpolation lends support to a line of thought not originally intended. Thus Rev 1:7 speaks of Jesus’ coming. Rev 1:8 speaks of Jehovah’s coming. Rev 1:4 speaks of Jehovah’s coming. The second interpolation of ancient manuscripts is found in Rev 1:11. If this interpolation were correct, if the KJV, Textus Reseptus were correct then Jesus would be an indisputed reference as the Alpha and Omega since verses twelve through twenty show him to be the speaker in this context. What’s interesting is that other Bible versions also add the words “Alpha and Omega”, dishonesty at it’s height, such as, “The Living Bible”, “The Amplified New Testament“, and “Young’s Literal Translation of the Holy Bible”, by Robert Young who even admits that “the oldest MSS.” omit the Alpha and Omega interpolation, in his commentary, “Young’s Concise Commentary on the Holy Bible“, paperback ed 1977 p. 179. Revelation 21:6 too should be understood to refer to Jehovah, the Father and God of Jesus when taken in context. Verse five tells us that the One seated on the throne is the speaker and in verse 6 he identifies himself as the “Alpha and the Omega”. Now I ask of the last of verse 7, who will be his son? The opening words identifies those that conquer as “his son”. Gal 3:26 and 4: |
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63 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112050 | ||
part 2 6 tells us that those ‘brothers’ (spiritually speaking) of Jesus are referred to as “sons of God.” The Scriptures never refer to the conquering Christians as “sons” to Jesus Christ. (Heb 2:11 and Matt. 12:50 and 25:40 show them as “brothers” not “sons” of Jesus Christ. Revelation 22:12-13 too should be understood to refer to Jehovah, the Father and God of Jesus. This verse contains phrases such as “the first and the last“, obviously another way of saying the “Alpha and the Omega”, likewise “the beginning and the end”. The Alpha and the Omega begins speaking in verse 12 and notice how he continues to identify himself as one who is coming on down through verse 15. Then in verse 16 the question is whether or not the speaker changes or stays the same. If it does not change then the Alpha and the Omega would reference Jesus. Does the simple conclusion that verse 16 begins with the first-person singular “I” followed by the identification of the speaker, “Jesus,” mean that the previous verses are also the words of Jesus? Two examples from this same Bible book show this does not necessarily mean that that must be the case. Rev 1:9 is one example where if we concluded such has to be the case then the apostle John would have to be the Alpha and the Omega. But I know of no one that argues that this is the case. The second example is Rev 22:8. Would anyone argue that John is the one “coming quickly” in verse 7? So, there are indeed sudden changes of speakers in the book of Revelation since Rev 1:1 says, “A revelation by (1) Jesus Christ, which (2) God gave him, . . . And he sent forth his (3) angel and presented it in signs through him (3)(angel) to his slave (4) John.” Consider the thought that the “angel” of verses 12-16 of chapter 22 might very well be speaking for both “the Alpha and the Omega” and Jesus Christ in verses 12-16, read the dialogue between John and one of God’s angels found in Rev 21:9-22:11. Notice in whatever Bible version you read these verses the various breaks for changes of speakers are provided by punctuation in the English language, since it was not there originally. There are many examples in the OT where angels speak for God and even referring to themselves as Jehovah.-Ex 3:2-6; Ac 7:30 “The First and the Last” an expression found three timesin the book of Revelation. Rev 1:17-18 identifies Jesus as the “First and the Last”. Rev 2:8 likewise shows by its context that Jesus is the “First and the Last”. Both of these are in relation to his death and unique resurrection by his Father and interestingly, is the reason for his being called the “firstborn from the dead” as in Rev 1:5 and Col 1:18 Also, notice that the “Alpha and the Omega” is Not used in conjunction with this “the First and Last” in these two places and neither is the phrase “the beginning and the end”. Now notice how an ancient manuscript helps to draw an accurate conclusion. Just a couple hundred years after John’s writing the book of Revelation the Codex Alexandrinus reads “firstborn,” instead of “first,” at both Revelation 1:17 and 2:8; but in 22:12 where the “Alpha and the Omega” is lacking and would be dying and coming to life again, we find “first”, not “firstborn”. This shows that the scribes of Codex A saw a |
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64 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112051 | ||
difference in the references to Jesus in 1:17 and 2:8 and the “Alpha and Omega”. In the margin of certain Hebrew manuscripts of the Masoretic text there are notations that read: “This is one of the eighteen emendations of the Sopherim,” or similar expressions. These emendations (corrections) were made with good intentions because the original passage appeared to show irreverence for God. One of the 18 emendations is found at Habakkuk 1:12 where it tells us that Jehovah cannot die. It says, “You do not die.” Heb., lo´ ta·muth´. This was the original reading, but the Sopherim changed it to read lo´ na·muth´, “we shall not die”. Rev 22:12,13 has the “Alpha and Omega” with “the First and the Last” thus it must refer to Jehovah God and not to Jesus Christ. Tara1 |
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65 | Tara1, Where are angels called gods? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112066 | ||
Thank you Searcher, Nothing could be simpler could it? The point being that reason becomes cloudy when you don't want to understand something. The Bible calls these men elohim, and its not me making it up. The Bible calls angels elohim. The Bible calls Jesus Elohim. The Bible calls Jehovah Elohim. The Bible calles Satan theos (greek for elohim) not me. Yes, to many Satan is their god, not a false god since the Bible calls him in 2 Cor 4:4, "the god of this system of things". "But as for me and my household we shall serve Jehovah", Joshua 24:14. I too serve Jesus Christ as John 1:18 says to, as Jehovah God's Son and GOD, only begotten GOD. Tara1 |
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66 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112069 | ||
Hello CDBJ, Your profile says, "I personally trusted in Jesus Christ to be the very Son Of God and my Savior in Oct. 1965, while reading the Bible by myself. I thuoght at the time that I was the only one in the World that knew the message of salvation, as I had never heard it before. I thought that I had a lot of work to do to get this message out, all by myself. Praise the Lord, I found out that there are more of us who love Jesus for who He is and what He did. I have been teaching home Bible studies, and in the past few years the Lord has helped me write Biblical poetry, to try and reach people. I study a lot and I enjoy the Greek of the New Testament. I am very bothered by people who claim to be believers yet don't have a hunger for God's precious Word! You can reach me by E-mail cbickett@neo.rr.com That's exactly what I'm saying here! I have not said anything contrary to your statement in your profile. If we go beyond that then we are adding and taking away from Scripture (Rev. 22:18) by interpretation, using man's philosophy or tradition. I am well versed in what tradition has done to our beloved Word of God and deem it a deplorable atrocity to accept puny man's manipulations bringing dishonor to our Almighty Loving Heavenly Father and of the One whom he sent forth. I believe with all my heart what John 17:3 says to you and me, "This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ. 4 I have glorified you on the earth, having finished the work you have given me to do. 5 So now you, Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was." Don't you? Tara1 |
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67 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112108 | ||
Hello CDBJ, My personal answer is a resounding, "Yes"! I've explained this time and again. Tara1 |
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68 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112185 | ||
Hi CDB, I’ll respond to a question asked of me by a couple of you recently of which is, What’s necessary for one to be saved. I open with the apostle’s Paul and Silas’ reply to the jailer just after their miraculous release from prison bonds, “They said: “Believe on the Lord Jesus and you will get saved, you and your household.” 32 And they spoke the word of Jehovah (according to 7 Hebrew Translations) to him together with all those in his house. 33 And he took them along in that hour of the night and bathed their stripes; and, one and all, he and his were baptized without delay. “ Yes, believing who Jesus is and what he taught is paramount to having divine approval. But more is needed since even the Demons believe. Jesus’ half brother says at James 2:19, “ You believe there is one God, do you? You are doing quite well. And yet the demons believe and shudder.” Along with that believing the previous verse, verse 18 tells us that we must have “faith and works” to be pleasing to God. Notice though that verse 19 also mentions believing that there is one God. If Jesus is “a god” and Jehovah is Almighty God, then does this verse present a problem with this theology? I’ll allow the Scriptures to respond. 1 Corinthians 8:5 answers saying, “For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.” I will refrain from commenting and allow God’s holy spirit to direct understanding to those whom he draws, as John 6:44 says concerning Jesus “No man can come to me unless the Father, who sent me, draws him”. Thus, what we do with what we have learned and believe must be included. Jesus put it this way at John 14:12, “He that exercises faith in me, that one also will do the works that I do.” Here Jesus tells us that faith in him and the doing of his works are to be included. Jesus’ primary work while on earth was according to his own words were as recorded for us at John 18:37 to Pilate’s question, “Well, then, are you a king?”, Jesus replied: “You yourself are saying that I am a king. For this I have been born, and for this I have come into the world, that I should bear witness to the truth. Everyone that is on the side of the truth listens to my voice.” As the Scriptures show, the truth to which he bore witness was not just truth in general. It was the all-important truth of what God’s purposes were and are, truth based on the fundamental fact of God’s sovereign will, His right as Creator to rule and His ability to fulfill that will. By his ministry Jesus revealed that truth, contained in “the sacred secret,” mentioned in Eph. 1:9,10 as being God’s Kingdom with Jesus Christ, the “son of David,” serving as King-Priest on the throne. Again at John 17:6,26 are Jesus’ words and they tell us another all-important truth where he says, “I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me . . . I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them.” This is emphasized by it being the first thing Jesus prayed for in his model prayer of Matthew 6:9 “‘Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified. “ or “treated holy” or “held sacred”. Yes, Jesus and his followers are “known” for using God’s name, Jehovah and treating it very very special, since it’s the highest name in all the universe. Well, “The conclusion of the matter, everything having been heard, is: Fear the [true] God and keep his commandments. For this is the whole [obligation] of man. 14 For the [true] God himself will bring every sort of work into the judgment in relation to every hidden thing, as to whether it is good or bad. Eccl. 12:13. I hope you enjoyed reading this, as I enjoyed writing it. I hope too that it was non-controversial as I'm trying. Tara1 |
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69 | Was Jehovah wrong? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112290 | ||
Hello Tim, 1 Corinthians 8:5 to me answers your question by saying, “For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.” You wouldn't say that Jesus Christ is the Father would you? As I've said before, the Bible calls Jesus "theos" several places but the Father Jehovah must be the only Almighty God and Jesus the "Son of God" but never is he called the "Almighty" theos. Tara1 |
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70 | Tara1, Where are angels called gods? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 113132 | ||
Colin, I have a couple of questions for you: Is Satan an angel? Where did Satan come from? And one more question; Can you accurately interprete the first prophesy of the Bible for me please, which answers your question? Tara1 |
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71 | Jesus great teacher? | John 8:28 | Tara1 | 113550 | ||
Hello Cryst, Good question and I would like to respond by saying first that Jesus was taught by his Father. Referring to God in this capacity as his instructor, Jesus said: “When once you have lifted up the Son of man, then you will know that I am he, and that I do nothing of my own initiative; but just as the Father taught me I speak these things.” (John 8:28) Also, he truly had empathy and love for mankind. He was a perfect man and knew what he was teaching, so he was the greatest Teacher who ever lived. Tara1 |
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72 | Who is Greater Jesus Christ or the Fathe | John 14:28 | Tara1 | 112617 | ||
Hello Frank4Yawheh, I agree with you on the posts you have made. This Bible text too tells me that Jesus is theos but the Father Yhwh is the only Almighty God. It says, 1 Corinthians 8:5 to me answers your question by saying, “For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.” You wouldn't say that Jesus Christ is the Father would you? As I've said before, the Bible calls Jesus "theos" several places but the Father Jehovah must be the only Almighty God and Jesus the "Son of God" but never is he called the "Almighty" theos. Tara1 |
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73 | Who is Greater Jesus Christ or the Fathe | John 14:28 | Tara1 | 112715 | ||
Hello Frank, And at Isaiah 9:6 Jesus Christ is prophetically called ´El Gib·bohr´, “Mighty God” (not ´El Shad·dai´ (God Almighty) which is applied to only Jehovah as at Genesis 17:1 At Psalm 8:5, the angels are also referred to as ´elo·him´, as is confirmed by Paul’s quotation of the passage at Hebrews 2:6-8. They are called beneh´ ha·´Elo·him´, “sons of God” (KJ); “sons of the true God” (NW), at Genesis 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1. Lexicon in Veteris Testamenti Libros, by Koehler and Baumgartner (1958), page 134, says: “(individual) divine beings, gods.” And page 51 says: “the (single) gods,” and it cites Genesis 6:2; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7. Hence, at Psalm 8:5 ´elo·him´ is rendered “angels” in the Septuigent (LXX); “godlike ones” (NW). Also, to angels as in Psalm 89:6: “Who can resemble Jehovah among the sons of God (or angels) (bi·beneh´ ´E·lim´)? It must be noted that in no way can these be, a play on words, "false gods" simply because they are not the Almighty "true God YHWH" because it is the Bible that is calling them "gods" and they are from the Hebrew word (elohim) which means "to be strong". Tara1 |
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74 | Who is Greater Jesus Christ or the Fathe | John 14:28 | Tara1 | 112802 | ||
Hi Johnny, Great post. Of course the Father is greater than the Son. He gave (which in itself tells us he is greater) his Son "things", such as authority, kingship, judging power, but that in no way then make him (Jesus) greater than him. Wow what nonsence! It's like talking to a wall, to some on this forum. All through the Scriptures there a comparision between "God" and Jesus. Jesus' God. etc. Tara1 |
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75 | Question for Jehovah's Witness friend | John 14:28 | Tara1 | 124161 | ||
Hello Ray, When there is a choice of alternatives, as when punctuation becomes vital, what the Bible itself says must be permitted to direct. (When the Bible was first written, there was no such thing as punctuation.) I know I’m not telling you anything here, just letting you know I agree with you. And the same principle holds true in beginning names with capital letters; it is up to the translator as to what use he makes of these. Thus, if like you, believe the holy spirit to be the third person of a Trinity will, of course, capitalize “Holy Spirit,” as at Acts 1:8, which reads (NEB): “You will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes upon you.” But notice Ray, in the actual account when Jesus’ words were fulfilled, what do we read? “This will happen in the last days: I will pour out upon everyone a portion of my spirit.” (Acts 2:17, NEB) Where is the capital letter? It is not there! Why not? Because God could not pour out a portion of a coequal God; “spirit,” as used here, clearly could not refer to a person. Since this text relates to the very thing Jesus foretold at Acts 1:8, it must follow that he did not have a person in mind when he spoke of his apostles as receiving holy spirit, and so in Acts 1:8 it should not have been capitalized either. All of this is in harmony with the words of John the Baptist that, while he baptized with water, the coming One “will baptize you with holy spirit.” (Mark 1:8) One cannot be baptizing with another person but one can baptize others with water or with an active force, which is what God’s holy spirit is. So, as translators we must let the rest of God’s Word direct when there is a choice between renderings. Just thought I would write something on capitalization. Now to answer your question. :-) And you Ray wrote: We on this forum do not make Jesus greater than the Father. We have only said that Jesus humbled Himself and came to earth in the likeness of men, yet being God. Ray, “yet being God”. By capitalizing theos we understand “Almighty God Jehovah”. The Bible teaches that Jesus is indeed theos but only the Father is Almighty theos, thus being the true theos. Without question Jesus is to be loved, and honored (worshipped if you will) as the Son of the Almighty theos. He willingly left his heavenly position in the spirit realm became a mere man and died on behalf of mankind as a redemptive offer that was accepted by the Almighty theos. John 3:16 Just think about it, if the Almighty theos himself came to the earth and was to “prove that he could stay loyal to his Almighty theos”, what do we have? An illogical scenario. You Ray, ask me: In comparing Luke 14:7-24 and Matthew 22:1-22, who is "giving" the wedding feast? In the Kingdom Hall of heaven who will fill that wedding hall? What will be required of the guests? Well, “the master” providing the meal represents Almighty Jehovah theos; “the slave” extending the invitation, Mighty theos Jesus Christ; and the “grand evening meal,” the opportunities to be in line for the Kingdom of the heavens. What will be required of the guests? First, they have to be invited. Those first to receive the invitation to come in line for the Kingdom were, above all others, the Jewish religious leaders of Jesus’ day. However, they rejected the invitation. Thus, beginning particularly at Pentecost 33 C.E., a second invitation was extended to the despised and lowly ones of the Jewish nation. But not enough responded to fill the 144,000 places in God’s heavenly Kingdom. So in 36 C.E., three and a half years later, the third and final invitation was extended to uncircumcised non-Jews, and the gathering of such ones has continued into our day. Tara |
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76 | Who is Greater Jesus Christ or the Fathe | John 14:28 | Tara1 | 124559 | ||
Hi Frank, Read John 17:20,21. First, I would like to know why you use Yahshua, as does a Bible I have (The Sacred Scriptures, Bethel Edition) when I understand it should be:The name Jesus (Gr., Iesous´) corresponds to the Hebrew name Jeshua (or, in fuller form, Jehoshua), meaning “Jehovah Is Salvation.” The Assemblies of Yahweh of Bethel, Pennsylvania say their reason is: "Eliminating the vowel points from the name found in Num. 13:16 it is conclusively confirmed that the best transliteration into English is Yahshua." This manke no sense to me at all. Green's Hebrew Interlinear has the vowel points for that name found in Num. 13:16 and it's Yoshua, thus the English name of Joshua. Yes, I believe it's correct that the name for Jesus in Hebrew is that same name found in Number 13:16. Just wondering, no big deal. Any ideas. The least that we can learn from your illustration is that the true followers of Christ are to attain a unity that is compared with this unity existing between Jehovah and his Son Jesus Christ. John 17:20,21 clearly agrees with your thought where it says, 20 “I make request, not concerning these only, but also concerning those putting faith in me through their word; 21 in order that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, in order that the world may believe that you sent me forth." This is no doubt God’s will for all his creatures to whom eternal life is promised, and this perfect unity between God and his only-begotten Son is the high standard of unity for them. Unity is possible only where there is agreement in thoughts and in action. The solid basis on which such unity can be built is the properly understood Word of God, the Bible. It is this truth that makes men free and unified. “If you remain in my word, you are really my disciples, and you will know the truth, and the truth will set you free.” (John 8:31, 32) The disciples of Jesus agreed with his teachings and his actions. They became one with him. This brought about a change in their lives and they followed their Master. On the other hand, the Pharisees disagreed with Jesus’ teachings and deeds. Their pride and the wrong interpretation of the Scriptures hindered them from coming into unity with him. So it is today Tara1 |
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77 | "The Passion of the Christ" | John 19:30 | Tara1 | 113454 | ||
Hello Hank, Commendation from me on such a well written observation. I've not seen the production but what I have seen, I'll have to agree with you. Tara1 |
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78 | can you break down "it is finshed" | John 19:30 | Tara1 | 113457 | ||
Hello Mss Z, My understanding of the verse of John 19:30 tells us that not only had Jesus proved his own integrity but he had succeeded in laying the basis for the salvation of mankind—and more important, the vindication of his God's sovereignty! I understand that that is in fact the theme of the Bible. Jehovah God's allowing mankind to suffer demonstrates man's inability to govern himself, the issue of which Satan instigated with Eve when he told her that if she ate of the fruit that she would become like God, knowing good and bad. In other words, deciding on her own what was "right" and what was "wrong". Satan’s rebellion raised the issue of the rightness of God’s sovereignty over all His creatures, of Jehovah’s right to require their full obedience. Jesus proved Satan a lier and we too can show that God has the right to tell us what's right and wrong and demonstrate that we support his sovereignty by obeying him. Tara1 |
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79 | Five words: see also 1 Cor 14:2 | Rom 8:16 | Tara1 | 114426 | ||
Hi Ray, I have a question for you. You quote Romans 8:16 using a translation that translates outos (itself) as "himself" instead. My King James and the New American Bible, Darby, etc, clearly translate outos as what outos truly should be translated "itself". My question though is; were the King James translators dishonest in transmitting the Word of God? Or were the translators of the translation you used dishonest by using "himself". Fact is, someone was dishonest (perhaps the scribes who merely copied the Greek to Greek) and was trying to promote what wasn't original since we have two opposing lines of thought. Is the Holy Spirit a person and so someone chose to make it appear so by changing outos (itself) to himself? If you are sincerely looking for accuracy then, this is serious study, as this verse originally has absolutely no personification indicators attached. Tara1 |
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80 | Five words: see also 1 Cor 14:2 | Rom 8:16 | Tara1 | 114491 | ||
Hello Ray, You make some interesting comments here and I guess you're right about "auto". Looking in several interlinears, I note some have what yours has and some have "autos". But regardless, it appears that either of these and be translated according to context as "itself or himself". One literal translations says "the very spirit", staying neutral perhaps. Tara1 |
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