Results 321 - 340 of 449
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Jesusman Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
321 | Luke 23:43 where is the thief? | Luke 23:43 | Jesusman | 192997 | ||
How about we apply some simple grammer instead? One use of a comma is to identify a change in sentance focus, or to even to add emphasis on what is immediately following. It is not a gigantic leap in logic to believe that such is the case here. The phrase following the comma needed emphasis. Besides, put this phrase before an English Grammer expert and see what they would say. I'm sure they would give a similar answer. Again .. I see no indications to state that I should see this statement in any other way other than literal. Jesusman |
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322 | Luke 23:43 where is the thief? | Luke 23:43 | Jesusman | 193003 | ||
Actually the koine greek does provide punctuation, as does any language for that matter. Not always as we might expect, but punctuation none the less. Someone trained in translating the greek into English will be familiar with that. Jesusman |
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323 | Luke 23:43 where is the thief? | Luke 23:43 | Jesusman | 193004 | ||
Exactly my point, Doc. As one of my college professors was noted for saying, "Context is King". Both Jesus and the Thief were dying in this moment of time. I dought seriously that Jesus was taking time out to give a parable or a philosophical discussion with multiple figurative meanings. Anyone who is at the moment of death will make sure that anything said will clear and straight to the point. Jesusman |
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324 | Luke 23:43 where is the thief? | Luke 23:43 | Jesusman | 193036 | ||
Reguardless of when the punctuation is put into the text, the statement remains the same. Jesus is telling this thief that he will be in paradise. Be that Abraham's bosom, or heaven, or whatever, the fact is that the thief wasn't going to hell. Jesus begins by saying "truly I say to you ...". In other words, "I'm not lying here ...". Jesusman |
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325 | What was Jesus writing? | John | Jesusman | 27021 | ||
Personally, I think that because they were getting ready to stone the lady for adultry, that Jesus was possibly writing the names of their mistresses and girlfriends. Also, given that they seemed to have left in a big hurry, I think that if it wasn't their mistresses names then it was their own sins. Jesusman |
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326 | John's Gospel and Epistles? | John | Jesusman | 27022 | ||
Clarify. | ||||||
327 | Why have J W's changed John 1:1 | John | Jesusman | 30425 | ||
Hello, If you were to follow the rules of Greek grammer strictly, then in order for a word to be declared definite, a definite article must be present. If the defininte article isn't present, then the word is to be declared undefinite. Basically, "the" for definite. "a" for undefinite. However that is not always the case, as we shall see here. Now, with that explained, let's look at the text. In the greek, you have three primary phrases in John 1:1. It is the last two phrases which we will focus on. In the first of these two, you have in english, "and the Word was with God,". IN greek, the word for God, specifically the God of the Bible, is "ho Theos". "Ho" being the Definite article, and "Theos" being the word meaning "God". This is basically what is in this phrase. IN the greek, when you are talking about God, Jehovah, you say, "The God." Now look at the remaining phrase of verse 1. In strict a english translation, you have, "and the Word was a god." Now, the J. W. stop there in translation. However, there is a matter of syntax that can, and is applied to this and similar sentances. IN this sentance, you have a verb with two subject nouns. The subject can be either, "God" or "Word". However, greek syntax reveals to us that is this case, the noun with the Definite article is to be placed as the subject, and the other noun is to be placed as the Direct Object, also called the "Predicate Nominative". That is what is taking place here. "Theos" is to be treated in every respect as if it had a Definite Article. However, due to the grammer dealing with this, the article was removed for clarity, so that we may know which noun was to be the subject of the verb. I hope this clears things up. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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328 | Why have J W's changed John 1:1 | John | Jesusman | 30431 | ||
I agree, Hank. They are just trying to deny the deity of Christ. However, in my experience the more technical and thorough explaination usually is what is sought after, which is why I gave the answer I gave. Also, the very core of the issue concerning the J. W. doctrine and our doctrine is whether or not Jesus is God. By merely saying that they are attempting to deny the deity of Christ doesn't solve the problem. However, by going into the matters concerning the Greek text, you solve many of the inherant problems and narrow down the field. J. W.'s are known for using the Greek to support many of their weird doctrines. I'm trying to show how they are incorrectly using the greek. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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329 | Is the wedding feast symbloic or literal | John | Jesusman | 40053 | ||
Hello, While there may be a symbolic meaning behind the first miracle, it is equally important to view it literally. It is through the literal meaning that we gain insight into the symbolic meaning. There are three primary lessons that can be learned from this passage. 1) Obedience to God enables you to do amazing things. Notice that the servants did exactly as Jesus commanded. They thought that they were filling the Water pots. However, through their obedient actions, a miracle occured. 2) With God, all things are possible. Notice that Jesus suspends the natural process of making wine. Instead of going through the natural process of growing grapes, collecting them, squishing the juice out of them, collecting the juice, and firmenting it, Jesus goes from water to wine, and takes out the middle man, as it were. 3) What God can provide is better than anything that Man can provide or God's provisions are more than sufficient. Notice in verse 10 that the wine Jesus provided was better than the wine the bridegroom originally had. While your analysis is interesting, it can be a dangerous area to explore. It's too easy to read into the text what it really doesn't say. Therefore, it is better to rely upon the literal meaning to determine the symbolic. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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330 | Is the wedding feast symbloic or literal | John | Jesusman | 40174 | ||
Hello, As I said before, it is an interesting analysis. However, I find it often dangerous to dive into the symbolic nature of many passages and events in the Bible. It is too easy to come up with something that can't be supported with scripture. Also, what the "symbols" may represent to you, may not coinside with another's interpretation of symbols. Then all you have is an argument brewing. So, as I said, it is interesting, but a dangerous area. I am mostly passing a word of caution to you. Among other scholars and Bible Teachers, such conversations could prove useful. However to the unchurched or newborn christian, such teachings may do more harm than good. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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331 | Are you onced saved always saved? | John | Jesusman | 102487 | ||
Hello, It's been a while since I've been on here. So, let me introduce myself, I'm Jesusman. Anyways, onto the question at hand: Am I once saved always saved? Of course! Is there any reason why I shouldn't be? Think about it. Paul in ephesians tells us that our salvation is from God's Grace through our faith in his Son. That there is no act or deed done on our part to merit salvation. That it was a gift from God the Father. In Romans, Paul talks about after salvation that we are a new creation, or a new man as he calls it. He goes onto say that the old man (our sinful nature) died and is buried. This new man is now in the possession of God. He says that after salvation the part that is left over with a sinful habit is the mind, which is why we are commnaded by Paul to renew our minds, and in Phillipians he tells us to let this mind be in You that was also in Christ Jesus. Peter in his first epistle tells us that our salvation and reward is encased in heaven under God's protection. That it cannot be done away with, corrupted, defiled, nor fade away. That it is reserved. I understand the implications made by the author of Hebrews, but you need to remember a few things about that book. First, The intended audience is the hebrew people. Not Gentiles. Second, that it is addressing the Jewish habit of becomeing a Christian and returning to the strict adherence of the Law. The Author addresses this issue here in Hebrews. He's not talking about a christian losing his salvation, he's expanding on Jesus' teaching that a man cannot have two masters. He's also establishing Jesus as the high priest before God in the Jewish Tradition. From that perspective, Hebrews shines out in a totally different light. Remember, not everything in the Bible was written to you. There is a totally original intended audience to concider first. Find out what the message was to the original audience, and who the audience was, then you'll have a better understanding of the passage at hand. When you put this all together, what you have is that it isn't that you have lost any salvation at all. What is happening is that your mind is getting in the way and telling you that you have. When that happens, Jesus commands that you merely repent. You don't need to be resaved. Just confess your sins. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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332 | What is the role of the Spirit in the li | John | Jesusman | 103527 | ||
Hello, I believe that John 14: 16-31 answers this question effectively. Jesus refers to the Holy spirit as the Spirit of Truth, the helper, or the comforter in the KJV. The Spirit is sent to be an aid to the Believer. To remind the Believer what Jesus taught and to reveal the Father to the Believer. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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333 | the divinity of Christ | John 1:1 | Jesusman | 29216 | ||
The divinity of Christ being questioned? What's new about that? We are already combatting that. It's the same argument the non-christians have been saying since Christ first walked the earth, just in a different format. Jesusman |
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334 | the divinity of Christ | John 1:1 | Jesusman | 29497 | ||
Actually, I'm not shocked. For that matter, why is anybody shocked? As long as the Bible remains, there will always be someone to come along who will question it, it's teachings, and it's claims. This is just another one of those times. As for my faith, I'm Christian. I believe what the Bible literally teaches and I teach what the Bible literally teaches. I believe that Jesus Christ is the One and true son of God, come to us to save us of our sins, and that he is God the Son of the Tri-une God-head. I believe that he died for our sins, was buried, and was ressurrected on the third day by his own power as according to the prophecies. I believe that the Bible is the Inerrant, Holy Word of God, inspired by the Holy Spirit, and divinely brought to us through human means. Does that answer your question? Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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335 | Same old question: man or Man? | John 1:1 | Jesusman | 30137 | ||
OK? As for John 1:2, remember what the verse says. "This was in the beginning with God." Now, there are two possible meanings here. Before I get into that, it is pertanent to clarify a few things. First, "outos" is a pronoun meaning "this". It is often used descriptively with another noun, for example "this chair", "this house", and etc. However, when it stands byitself, with a definite article, as in John 1:2, it functions as a noun on it's own. Thus giving the meaning of "this one", as in John 1:2. Now, the question then becomes, "what is 'this' referring to?" Now, in the context of John 1:2, you have two possibilities. "This" is referring to "the Word" or to the preexistance of "the Word" that is described in verse 1, as if to say "and vise versa". Both possibilities fit here in John 1:2. "outos" could be referring to the "Word", and summing up what was said in verse 1. Also, it could be trying to describe "God" in the same manner of pre-existance as it did for "the Word". Thus saying something like "in the beginning was God, and God was with the Word, and God was the Word." This is what I personally believe. While the first possibility does fit, it the second that I believe because it makes better sense in my mind. As for Matthew 9:3, here you also have "outos" by itself with a definite article. Through the context, we find that "this fellow" is in reference to Jesus. As in John 1:2, "outos" is being used in a similar manner than as a noun would've been used. Jesusman |
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336 | Same old question: man or Man? | John 1:1 | Jesusman | 30211 | ||
I didn't have my Greek NT handy when I wrote the reply. So I had to wing it, so to speak. Thanks for the correction. However, even though there isn't a definite article, and if there isn't a corrosponding noun with it, then the rules of substantival usage could still be applied. If I remember correctly, that is. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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337 | At what age? | John 1:12 | Jesusman | 27144 | ||
Let me speak from experience. I was saved at the age of six. My mom was saved at the age of five, my dad at seven. My hermaneutics professor from college, mentor, and good friend was saved at four years old. All of us are faithful christians. Three of us are pastors in some form or another. My mom works as an adult sunday school teacher, and has a masters in theology and church history. There is zero doubt in my mind that all four of us are saved and going to heaven to be with the Father, and all of us were saved at very young ages. When I was saved, My parents enouraged it. They were always encouraging me, loving me, and watching over me. Every day, we would gather together and read and study the bible. The lessons started easy at first with the telling of the Bible stories. As I grew in knowledge and understanding, the lessons got harder and more challenging. Today, I am a graduate with a BA in hermaneutics and exegesis, and am persuing a master's degree in the same field. I am hoping to get my doctorite and become a professor in a seminary or college. There has never been any doubt as to whether or not I was saved. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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338 | I don't know the book or verse for this | John 2:1 | Jesusman | 195676 | ||
Greetings, The miracle of Jesus turning the water to wine is in John 2:1-12. However, Jesus never tells them to not drink the wine in this passage. Jesusman |
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339 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Jesusman | 112041 | ||
If this is a discussion over whether or not Jesus declared himself to be God, then you need ton debate further, because he did. Althroughout the Gospels, Jesus is referred to as God, and never once does he correct them. Also, IN John 8:58, Jesus in reference to Abraham calls himself the "I am". The holy name for God that was told to Moses on the mount at the burning bush, what "Jehovah" actually means. Why do you think the Pharisees and Sadducees blaimed Jesus for committing blasphemy? Because Jesus declared himself as God. So, Thomas' statement of declaring Jesus as God incorrect? No, because Jesus declared it of himself before. As for Angels being Gods, that is simply false. Also, Jesus is not a created being, as it seems like you are implying. "Begotten" does not always mean "birthed", but "unique". That is an accurate description of Jesus, especially given the Doctrine of the Trinity, and Jesus being the Son within the Tri-une Godhead. As for the worship of Angels, Paul clearly denounces that In Colossians chapter 2. Besides, Hebrews chapter one raises Jesus higher than the angels, and lowers angels far below humans in status. The Bible makes it very clear that Angels are not gods and are not deserving of worship. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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340 | GOD MDE SALAVATION AVAIL 4 ALL | John 3:17 | Jesusman | 88237 | ||
God made salvation available for all. That's a far cry from everyone in the world being saved. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman ps: Don't shout! |
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