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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Question about immorality | John 8:41 | gfernandez1 | 198958 | ||
Why does the NASB use the word "immorality", to describe acts of fornication? Why didn't the translators just use the word fornication like other translations? | ||||||
2 | Question about immorality | John 8:41 | Makarios | 198959 | ||
Greetings Gfernandez1! I have also wondered at one time or another why some of the newer translations use something other than the word "fornication" when the Bible is describing sexual immorality. The word "fornication" is found in 32 verses in the KJV: 2 Chr. 21:11, Isaiah 23:17, Ezekiel 16:26, 16:29, Matt. 5:32, 19:9, John 8:41, Acts 15:20, 15:29, 21:25, Romans 1:29, 1 Cor. 5:1, 6:13, 6:18, 7:2, 10:8, 2 Cor. 12:21, Gal. 5:19, Ephesians 5:3, Col. 3:5, 1 Thess. 4:3, Jude 1:7, Rev. 2:14, 2:20,21, 9:21, 14:8, 17:2,4, 18:3,9, and 19:2. In the case of 2 Chr. 21:11, Isaiah 23:17, and Ezekiel 16:26, the Hebrew word used was 'zana' (Strong's 2181), which means to become a prostitute, to be sexually immoral, playing the harlot, or committing adultery. The Hebrew word in Ezekiel 16:29 in which the KJV translators chose to use "fornication" was 'taznut' (Strong's 8457), which means promiscuity, prostitution, act of lust. In the New Testament, the vast majority of the occurrences of the word "fornication" in the KJV are due to the Greek word 'porneia' (Strong's 4202), which means sexual immorality, fornication, marital unfaithfulness, and could be used as a generic term for sexual sin of any kind. The few exceptions of the NT verses in which the KJV uses 'fornication' but with a different Greek word are 1 Cor. 6:18, 10:8, Rev. 2:14, 2:20, 17:2, 18:3,9, which all use a Greek word 'porneuo' (Strong's 4203), that is similar to 'porneia' but put in action: to commit sexual immorality of any kind. Jude 1:7 also has a different Greek word 'ekporneuo' (Strong's 1608), which means to engage in sexual immorality, or giving over to fornication. However, with the above information in mind, the Hebrew word 'zana' itself is found in 93 different places in the Old Testament, the Hebrew word 'taznut' found in 20 different places in the Old Testament, the Greek word 'porneia' is found 26 times in the New Testament, the Greek word 'porneuo' is found 8 times in the NT, and the Greek word 'ekporneuo' is found only once, in Jude 1:7. So, since the KJV translators used the word "fornication" only in 3 places (out of 93) where the Hebrew word 'zana' is found, or only in one place where the Hebrew word 'taznut' is found, or in only 24 out of the 26 places where the Greek word 'porneia' is found, are we to conclude that the KJV translators were soft or negligent when it came to using the word "fornication" when describing sexual immorality? Of course, that is a nonsensical conclusion to make, and I believe that the same would hold for the present day translations as well. What exactly does the word 'fornication' mean, anyway? According to Webster's 1828 Dictionary, the word Fornication could have any one of several meanings: "1. The incontinence or lewdness of unmarried persons, male or female; also, the criminal conversation of a married man with an unmarried woman. 2. Adultery. Mat 5. 3. Incest. 1 Cor 5. 4. Idolatry; a forsaking of the true God, and worshipping of idols. 2 Chr 21. Rev 19." So, if we look at 2 Chronicles 21:11, for instance, the context of the passage indicates that idolatry would be a bit more precise in capturing the meaning than the implied meaning of sexual immorality. To the NASB's credit, it uses "play the harlot", which is close in meaning to both. Isaiah 23:17, Ezekiel 16:26,29, and John 8:41 all can be used as examples where the word "fornication" in the KJV would actually be describing instances of idolatry. (Part 1 of 2) -Makarios |
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Questions and/or Subjects for John 8:41 | Author | ||
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gfernandez1 | ||
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Makarios | ||
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Makarios | ||
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Brent Douglass |