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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | reformedreader | 2987 | ||
Thanks Mark, I would, if you don't mind, like a further explanation as to how the term "kosmos" (referring to that of order as opposed to chaos) suddenly changes meaning and refers to human beings in John 3:16. Also, if, as you say, Christ died for mankind in general, does that mean "not specifically"? John 10:11 says Jesus laid down His life for the sheep. If that is true, then mankind in general would be His sheep. 10:27 says Christ's sheep hear His voice and they follow Him. This obviously refers to salvation since verse 28 says Christ gives those for whom He died eternal life. If then, Jesus died for all mankind, and all mankind are His sheep, then all mankind hear His voice and follow Him. Is that true of all mankind? And if so, why are some of mankind in hell? Sam Hughey |
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2 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | mhmcintyre | 2992 | ||
The word doesn't change meaning, it moves from the general to the particular. The world kosmos has been used to refer to the created universe and as part of the created universe it can refer to mankind. When I typed the words "in general" I wondered if I would get this question. These words were ill chosen. -Mark |
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3 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | reformedreader | 3040 | ||
Thanks Mark and please don't take my response the wrong way for I surely do not intend for it to be taken but with the utmost of respect and courtesy. I still don't see how the word didn't change meaning. It either retains the same meaning (referring to that of order as opposed to chaos) or it doesn't. If it doesn't, then it surely has changed. Now, you say the meaning did not change but the meaning you gave was "referring to that of order as opposed to chaos" and not "general" to "particular". The problem I see with this is the term "general" is so vague it can mean just about anything we want it to mean and the term "particular" was not followed with anything that is "particular" so it also leaves us with a vague and ambiguous meaning, which can also be whatever we want it to be in the absence of any specificity. I think John was very specific with what he wrote in 10:11; 27,28. I realize the word "kosmos" is used to refer to the created universe and as part of the created universe it "can" refer to mankind. However, that does not conclude that it "must" and most definitely refers to "all" mankind without exception. That is not general, that is very specific or I guess particular as you are using the term. This would completely disagree with what John states in the verses I quoted and it would contradict what John states if the word "kosmos" must be forced in John 3:16 to refer to "all" humans instead of just mankind, meaning some but not all. John does not say that Christ died for "all" mankind specifically or particularly. John says Christ died for His sheep and since "not all" humans are Christ’s sheep, then Christ obviously did not die for all humans unless something has changed the meaning of sheep. Now, we could say that all humans were/are Christ’s sheep (without any scriptural warrant) but at sometime in their lives they chose to become goats (also without any scriptural warrant). So, I still fail to see how the word "kosmos" changed from what you stated originally to what you stated in your response. What is it in John 3:16 that would lead anyone reading it to conclude that the term "kosmos" can only refer to all humans and still not contradict what John states in 10:11;27,28? Sam Hughey |
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4 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | kalos | 3877 | ||
Thank you for a question to which you have obviously given lots of time and thought. | ||||||