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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | YAHWEH, JEHOVAH or LORD | Luke 4:18 | asteng88 | 146924 | ||
Hi, I have been searching for the most accurate Bible to begin studying. Many people have helped in putting me on the right track but I have found what I would class as a major inconsistency, even within the same version of the Bible. I believe that if in either Hebrew or Aramaic, God's name (YHWH) was printed (which it was), it should be copied exactly word for word into the translation. Even scholar's have translated it into Yahweh or even Jehovah so why is this left out of the Bible when it clearly states to use Gods Name. Replacing it with LORD in the NIV and the TNIV disappointed me greatly as there was a very weak explanation as to why and it even stated that it copied the format in the KJV (which is untrue because the KJV has Jehovah included in the text) and it also stated that it may include it in future revisions. However, when looking through different prints of the KJV, some had the word Jehovah in it and others has the word LORD. Can anyone explain to me why this is and if there is a version of the bible that is as close to perfect translation as possible without man's simple interference? |
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2 | YAHWEH, JEHOVAH or LORD | Luke 4:18 | Morant61 | 146925 | ||
Greetings Asteng88! What you are referring to would be a 'transliteration', not a 'translation. However, there is good support in Scripture to translate 'YHWH' as 'LORD'. Check out Luke 4:18-19. Here Jesus is quoting Is. 61:1-2, a passage where YHWH is used. Luke, writting under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit translates YHWH in v. 19 as 'kurios' or 'Lord'. So, if Jesus Himself did not consider it necessary to write 'YHWH' instead of translating the word, why should we? ;-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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