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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why did Jesus call this woman a dog? | Mark 7:27 | rmiddleton | 75541 | ||
Why did Jesus call this woman a dog? It seems like a racist term. I believe that Jesus is the Son of God and therefore perfect so he could not have sinned. What gives? |
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2 | Why did Jesus call this woman a dog? | Mark 7:27 | srprimeaux | 75545 | ||
His attitude was intended to test the woman's faith, which was rewarded by a miraculous healing. The term used for dogs (Gr. kuharious) means little dogs (pets), not wild, scavenging beats. She replied that such "dogs eat of the crumbs which fall from their master's table." She knew would could be hers, even as a Gentile, and this became an illustration of millions of Gentiles who would later be blessed by Israel's Messiah! This is also proof that Jesus could not be hidden even from the Gentiles! In Christ, SRP |
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3 | More info on calling woman a dog in Mark | Mark 7:27 | rmiddleton | 75673 | ||
Thanks SRP, Maybe I am just missing it here but I still don't understand. Is there more scripture you know of I can look at or a commentary? Thanks Rocky |
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4 | More info on calling woman a dog in Mark | Mark 7:27 | Morant61 | 75678 | ||
Greetings Rocky! Simply put, the Jewish people of Jesus' day were very racist. They considered Gentiles to be 'dogs'. A term which was not meant to be flattering. When this Gentile woman approaches Jesus looking for healing for her daughter, Jesus tests her faith by asking why He should give the children's bread to the dogs (i.e. - her and her gentile daughter). The comment does not suggest that Jesus believed that Gentiles were dogs, but that He was testing her to see how much faith she had. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | More info on calling woman a dog in Mark | Mark 7:27 | rmiddleton | 75820 | ||
Hi Tim and THANKS! This did help in that it led me search out more scriptures and commentaries. I have come to the following conclusions: The Savior did not use the word dogs as an epithet to be applied to this woman, but only as a part of the metaphor, by which he illustrated his position in respect to her and her nation. He says that, as it would not be proper to give the food intended for the children of a family to the dogs, so it is doubtful whether he ought to bestow upon the Gentile nations those miraculous benefits which he was sent to communicate to God's own chosen people. This was very different from applying the term to her as an opprobrious epithet. Hence the point and beauty of her reply,--that the dogs were not to be entirely neglected, but might at least receive some small share footnote - most of the above was gleaned directly from Abbots commentary and MHC - not my words but helped to crystalize my conclusion. Again, Thanks for your help! This forum is a great tool. Your Brother in Christ, Rocky Middleton |
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