Results 361 - 380 of 500
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Reformer Joe Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
361 | What is a false prophet? | 1 Cor 14:3 | Reformer Joe | 68816 | ||
"I will raise up a prophet from among their countrymen like you, and I will put My words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him. It shall come about that whoever will not listen to My words which he shall speak in My name, I Myself will require it of him. But the prophet who speaks a word presumptuously in My name which I have not commanded him to speak, or which he speaks in the name of other gods, that prophet shall die. You may say in your heart, 'How will we know the word which the LORD has not spoken?' When a prophet speaks in the name of the LORD, if the thing does not come about or come true, that is the thing which the LORD has not spoken. The prophet has spoken it presumptuously; you shall not be afraid of him." --Deuteronomy 18:18-22 --Joe! |
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362 | Jesus of history | 1 Cor 15:14 | Reformer Joe | 81597 | ||
If you mean the Christ of the historic, orthodox Christian faith, there is no distinction. --Joe! |
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363 | Second Adam? | 1 Cor 15:45 | Reformer Joe | 55110 | ||
Well, if it eases you a little, I hold Him to be the Second and Last Adam. :) I do see your point, however. --Joe! |
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364 | Is God's elect the only ones to be saved | 2 Cor 4:3 | Reformer Joe | 31528 | ||
Welcome to the Forum. You will find ad nauseam debate regarding election (much of it perpetrated by yours truly) by typing "Christ" and "elect" in the Quick Search box to your right. Happy reading! --Joe! |
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365 | What does it mean to be "in Christ?" | 2 Cor 5:17 | Reformer Joe | 100020 | ||
'"What does it mean to be "in Christ?" Although this is the verse that may most often come to mind, there are many other references to consider . . . any comments or observations?' I think Romans 6 speaks to this quite well. --Joe! |
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366 | What does it mean to be "in Christ?" | 2 Cor 5:17 | Reformer Joe | 100025 | ||
I would hasten to add that there is an external "putting on of Christ" which does not always correspond to the any true conversion of the individual. Just as one can be circumcised physically and not spiritually (Romans 2:28-29), so one can be baptized physically and not in the heart. --Joe! |
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367 | Spurgeon's calvanistic contradiction? | Gal 2:17 | Reformer Joe | 13554 | ||
Bob: Well, I hold a strongly Calvinistic point of view, so I hope I can shed some light on it for you! I don't know if Spurgeon made this statement himself, but it does reflect the viewpoint of Reformed theology quite well. The understanding of it hinges on grasping the meaning of the word "decree." To decree something is to simply declare that that thing shall happen. In the case of God's sovereign decree, the decreed event can either come from God causing it directly, or by God allowing it to happen. Sin falls into the latter category. From eternity past, God knew that His creation would rebel against Him. Therefore, He created Adam and Eve already knowing that the serpent (which He also created, knowing from eternity past that he would be His chief adversary) would be successful in leading them into sin. This was not some "mistake" or "fluke" on the part of a non-omniscient God. God, by creating the agents involved and allowing them to sin on their own, decreed what would come to pass. he then in turn used it, is using it, and will use it to glorify Himself. Sending Jesus was not "Plan B" to make up for what man had done. We read in Ephesians 1:4-5 that God had chosen and predestined the elect "from the foundation of the world." Therefore, God the Son had already consented to be the Savior before man was even formed out of the dust. This is what is known in Reformed theology as the "covenant of redemption," made among the three Persons of the Trinity in eternity past. Agin, God did not CAUSE the sin, but in His infinite sovereignty He declared that it would occur. We also see evidence of God intending to use man-originated sin for His purposes as well. In fact, Scripture is replete with such situations. His hardening of Pharaoh's heart (Pharaoh was the sinner; God just didn't bring him to repentance) in the book of Exodus is a famous example. God used Pharaoh's stubborn rebellion against Him to glorify Himself and His chosen people. Another excellent example is found in the book of Judges, when God's purposes for the sinful neighbors of Israel is spelled out in no uncertain terms: "So the anger of the LORD burned against Israel, and He said, 'Because this nation has transgressed My covenant which I commanded their fathers and has not listened to My voice, I also will no longer drive out before them any of the nations which Joshua left when he died, in order to test Israel by them, whether they will keep the way of the LORD to walk in it as their fathers did, or not.' So the LORD allowed those nations to remain, not driving them out quickly; and He did not give them into the hand of Joshua." --Judges 2:20-23 We see that God refuses to keep driving out the enemies of Israel for a very specific purpose (i.e to test them). God allows these idolatrous, sinful nations to remain; he decrees that these nations which rebel against the true God will continue in the presence of His people and will continue in their sin. Does this mean that God causes the sin? Of course not. Similarly we can see all other "sinful events, such as Satan's temptation of Jesus (led out by the Spirit for that purpose -- Matthew 4:1) and the Babylonian captivity in that light. While the perpetrators of the events were clearly in opposition to God, God without a doubt decreed that these individuals would flourish in their sin for a season, so that in the end His glory would be known. The simple fact is that God is in control of every infinitessimal detail of His creation. Nothing happens unless He ultimately allows it, and in His omniscience and omipotence nothing happens that takes Him by surprise or falls outside of His ability to control. Factor in that He is perfect and incapable of sin, and what we have is a basis for the statement you attributed to Spurgeon. The thing that must be remembered in all of this is that God uses all of this for His own glory, all things together for good for us who are called according to His purpose (Romans 8:28). "Remember the former things long past, For I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is no one like Me, Declaring the end from the beginning, And from ancient times things which have not been done, Saying, 'My purpose will be established, And I will accomplish all My good pleasure" --Isaiah 46:9-10 --Joe! |
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368 | "Decree" can mean "allow?" | Gal 2:17 | Reformer Joe | 13563 | ||
Bob: I guess the hardest part about the Reformed view to accept from our finite perspective is the idea that God pre-determined that sin would (temporarily) be a part of His grand design. It is more than the case of him allowing sin; you are correct. He actually decreed that sin would exist on the earth by virtue of His creation of Lucifer and a human couple he knew would succumb to Satan's treachery. Another very good example is the crucifixion. Was that a part of God's plan? In other words, did he intentionally send His Son to the earth for the express purpose of being murdered unjustly? I think that most Bible believers will admit that He did just that. What Reformers would argue is that He also orchestrated events so that there would be a party of Jewish leaders called Pharisees would emerge and eventually become hypocritical "whitewashed tombs" that would be His instrument in the death of Jesus Christ. Now the sticky point comes from this question: did God cause the unjust death of His Son? I hold that the answer is "yes," and I think Scripture supports that as well: "But the LORD was pleased To crush Him, putting Him to grief; If He would render Himself as a guilt offering, He will see His offspring, He will prolong His days, And the good pleasure of the LORD will prosper in His hand." --Isaiah 53:10 Here we read that God "was pleased" to actively participate in the crucifixion. However, we also see that the guilt of actually killing Jesus rests on the Pharisees, not on God: "Which one of the prophets did your fathers not persecute? They killed those who had previously announced the coming of the Righteous One, whose betrayers and murderers you have now become." --Acts 7:52 We have a seeming paradox here. God orchestrated events so that Christ would die; it was no accident, and it was far more than a case of "a necessary contingency to insure optimal design." As I stated before, this is "Plan A." On the other hand, it is the Pharisees who bear the blame for the actual murder of Jesus, through which people who are guilty of rebelling against our Holy creator are saved. Now the question you seem to be interested in is, "Did God MAKE the Pharisees sin?" The Pharisees were born sinners, so the answer to that is "no." On the other hand, God directed their innate sinfulness through circumstance and withholding repentance so that the very act he decreed (the atonement) would take place. We see the same thing in the case of the Pharaoh. Pharaoh was already a sinner, but God hardened his heart so that he would not be "saved," so to speak, so that God would be glorified through the Exodus. Could God have changed Pharaoh's heart so that he would "let His people go"? Absolutely, but he chose rather to utilize the Egyptian's innate sinfulness for His purposes. Does that mean that Pharaoh was not responsible for his actions? No; he was not willingly cooperating with God, although in God's sovereign decree he did just that. Same holds true for Satan. Satan chooses to be evil, but we see in Job 1 where God most actively directs that evil in a particular direction (Job-ward). So we see from Scripture that God brings into existence evil people (after all, isn't that exactly how you and I started out?) for His purposes. Some He doesn't save. Some He does. Both are responsible for their own sins. God shows mercy to the latter, but both groups of people God decreed would exist and both serve his purposes. Romans 9 gives a much more lucid argument than I have here regarding "vessels of mercy" and "vessels of wrath" (imagine that: the Holy Spirit explaining it better than me!). It is undoubtedly a hard issue to wrestle with from a finite, human perspective, but the bottom line is that on a certain level God intends that sin exist for now and that it work for His purposes. Just as he brings Moses and Paul into existence for His purposes, so he brings Pharaohs and Pharisees into existence for His purposes as well. Our roles are decreed, and yet we are guilty of our own sin, not God. Complicated? Yes, but also very biblical! Feel free to respond, Bob. I don't mind wrestling throught his issue with you at all! --Joe! |
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369 | So God is the cause of sin then | Gal 2:17 | Reformer Joe | 13602 | ||
Bob: In order to be more clear, I am going to quote from the Westminster Confession of Faith, one of the important documents reflecting the Reformed view. This is the first section of Chapter III, entitled "Of God's Eternal Decree": "God from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of His own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass: yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin, nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures; nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established." So we see two important things right away: 1. ALL things are ordained by God. 2. God is NOT the author of sin. God not only foreknows sin; he allows sin to exist and uses it ultimately for His glory. You would agree that nothing happens without God allowing it, correct? I guess what differentiates the Reformed view from others is that rather than merely saying God's ultimate purposes are accomplished DESPITE the sinful rebellion of His creation, the Reformed theologian will state emphatically that God weaves the rebellion of man in the tapestry of His overall plan. However, man is the CAUSE of man's sin, not God. Regarding the human will, permit me to quote again from the WCF, from Chapter IX, "Of Free Will": ************************ II. Man, in his state of innocency, had freedom, and power to will and to do that which was good and well pleasing to God; but yet, mutably, so that he might fall from it. III. Man, by his fall into a state of sin, has wholly lost all ability of will to any spiritual good accompanying salvation: so as, a natural man, being altogether averse from that good, and dead in sin, is not able, by his own strength, to convert himself, or to prepare himself thereunto. ************************ Therefore the Reformed view agrees with Scripture that while man was created with the ability to please God, that was lost in the Fall for Adam and all of his natural descendants. Romans 8:7-9 demonstrates that the unregenerate human is completely incapable of pleasing God. God did not cause this sinfulness, either; it proceeds from the curse which resulted from Adam's sin (Genesis 3). Another place where we can see this illustrated is the story of Joseph and his brothers in Genesis. After his entire ordeal from being sold into slavery, to being framed for sexual assault, to spending years in prison unjustly, to rising to the top of the political ladder in Egypt, he had this to say to his brothers: "Now, therefore, it was not you who sent me here, but God; and He has made me a father to Pharaoh and lord of all his household and ruler over all the land of Egypt." --Genesis 45:8 Joseph says that GOD sent him to Egypt, but it was by means of the sinful actions of his brothers. This mans that God ordained it to happen, but didn't author the sin. How would you interpret this verse otherwise? Man's sin was part of God's decree. Joseph repeats the same idea again in the last chapter: "As for you, you meant evil against me, but God meant it for good in order to bring about this present result, to preserve many people alive." --Genesis 50:20 There is no mistaking that God MEANT it to happen, not merely that he allowed it to occur and "cleaned up the mess" for His glory and His purposes. Again, he did not cause the sinful attitudes of the brothers, but since the original intent was to kill Joseph, it isn't too much of a stretch to suggest that God redirected that motive through Reuben. On last thing: You wrote, "If God has pre-determined every infitessimal detail of history, which must obviously include sin, then how can those individuals who commit those predetermined sins be held responsible for them?" Rather than answer myself, I will let the apostle Paul do the talking: "You will say to me then, "Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?" On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, 'Why did you make me like this,' will it? Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use?" Romans 9:19-21 Just out of curiosity, how would you work the verses here and in my other posts into another framework. Where do you stand on the reconciliation of God's sovereignty and man's sin? --Joe! |
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370 | But isn't that a contradiction | Gal 2:17 | Reformer Joe | 13720 | ||
Bob: Don't worry about coming across as anagonistic. Healthy discussion and debate is like dessert to me! :) I find you framing Chapter III of the Westminster Confession as a contradiction a little difficult to work with, and that is why I asked for your view. You see, all believers in the Bible have to reconcile an omipotent, omniscient God with the fact that He created beings who would rebel against Him (Satan and his angels and human beings). The way, I see it, there are three options in explaining why he would do such a thing: 1. He did not know they would sin against Him when he created them. 2. He did know that they would sin when He created them, but decided to "work around" that to glorify Himself anyway. 3. He did know that they would sin when He created them, and fully intended to work through their rebellion to glorify Himself. I hold (1) to be a denial of God knowing the future, and I reject that as unbiblical. The Scriptures I stated in my previous posts repudiate (2) by showing that God indeed intends the sin of humans and Satan to be used directly for His glory, in spite of the efforst of those who fight Him. Therefore, I embrace (3) as being the biblical answer. Whether Calvinist or Arminian, the fact still remains that God created beings who would become rebels against Him. To say that it was a mistake on God's part would deny His infinite wisdom, so there must have been a purpose to it. In any case, also note that God did not CREATE them in a state of sinfulness; both Satan and Adam were created in a state in which they were sinless, but corruptible. The Reformed view does not hold that God encouraged them to sin or entrapped them in some situation that they could not get out of, for that, too would violate Scripture: "Let no one say when he is tempted, 'I am being tempted by God'; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone. But each one is tempted when he is carried away and enticed by his own lust. Then when lust has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and when sin is accomplished, it brings forth death." --James 1:13-15 So while God did not MAKE Satan rebel or Adam sin (Chapter III of WCF states "nor was violence offered to the will of the creatures"), He created them will full knowledge that they would rebel. Therefore, the sin was theirs, but God had purpose in creating those who would become sinners. It would seem to deny some of God's revealed attributes to say otherwise. It is always a daunting task to ever attempt to even get the slightest grasp of God's soverign will over existence. We in our, finite, temporal bodies try to understand how no matter what we do, that God's purposes will be accomplished. It goes beyond some "cosmic chess match" where God compensates for "our moves." Every move that we make by our own free will, whether pleasing to God or dishonoring to Him, has already been incorporated into His sovereign decree from eternity past and will ultimately result in his glory. God created beings who would become vile, sinful creatures; it was His decree. God permitted them to sin; it was His decree. He permits us to be born in a state of rebellion against Him; that is His decree. He chooses some to be regenerated and dwell with Him for eternity to demonstrate His mercy and love and grace, and others to remain in their rebellious, sinful state and suffer His justice and wrath for THEIR sinfulness. Again, it is all part of His plan, not loose ends that he has to tie up after all is said and done. I see nothing in your comments that presents a more particular problem for Calvinists than it does for Arminians who must also explain that God created sinners, and is not the author of sin. --Joe! |
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371 | Again, "decree" can mean "allow?" | Gal 2:17 | Reformer Joe | 13835 | ||
Bob: I didn't say decree didn't mean "allow." What I had said before that it is MORE than simply allowing something. Here's the way I explained it in the context of God's sovereign will at a teen camp this summer: God's sovereign will includes everything that He either actively engages in or actively permits to occur. Both fall under the category of "decree," and both were ordained from eternity past. Also, both play an active role in God's overall plan to glorify Himself. While He is not the author of sin, he directs the sinful hearts of men in such a way that His purposes are accomplished. Again, we still have a "problem" to resolve from either point of view, because God created those who would later sin, so in a way I suppose that we could say that sin exists because of God (in the sense that if He had not created anything, sin would be nonexistent), but He didn't create it Himself. He created the creators of sin would be the best way to put it. That is something every Christian would agree with. --Joe! |
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372 | Part 2 of 2: How can both be true? | Gal 2:17 | Reformer Joe | 13836 | ||
Bob: It is a bit of an oversimplification to say that Calvinists do not believe that man has free will. What Calvinists state is that after the fall, man does indeed have free will, but his nature is corrupted by the fall in such a way that whatever his choices will be, he will not choose to do anything that is pleasing to God; he cannot submit to God's law, as Romans 8:7-9 explicitly states. For example, I was born a sinner. However, that sinful nature never manifested itself in the form of homosexual acts, murder, or building graven images and worshiping them. I have never chosen to engage in such activities. However, I have lied and I have acted selfishly a countless number of times. Therefore, while I have rejected some actual sins, before my conversion there was not the slightest inclination to act for good with the motive of giving glory to God. It took the Holy Spirit's regeneration, quickening my spiritual deadness before I could even place my trust in Christ for the forgiveness of my sins. Therefore, it is most correct to say that our wills are damaged as a result of the Fall's curse, rather than non-existent. Maybe the best way to sum up "decree" is merely God stating, "This will happen." I recently read a short part of one of John Piper's books which dealt with a similar problem with regard to God's sovereign decree: the question, "Why should I pray, then, if all is decreed?" Piper framed it in the context of a conversation between two individuals, with one asking why one should pray if God has already determined what would happen. The basic response (and this is a very rough paraphrase) was that the God who knew what He would do also knew that the praying person would be praying for it. Therefore, God knew that a person in his free will would pray for something, and he would decide to work in accordance with that prayer. The other man responded by saying something along the lines of "So, if you didn't pray, it wouldn't have happened." The praying person agreed, which thoroughly confused his challenger. But if that were the case, he continued, then God also knew from eternity past that he wouldn't pray. He compared it to a sovereign decree that someone would die from a bullet wound. If there were no bullet, the man wouldn't die from a bullet wound. The fact is, however, that because it is decreed, there WILL be a bullet coming from somewhere. God doesn't fire the shot, but He says, "It will happen." The same could hold true for evangelism. Why evangelize?, people say to Calvinists. One, because God told us to, and two, God sovereignly governs the universe so that many of his elect will come across the paths of believers who will share their faith. Epehesians 2:10 illustrates this quite well, that God arranges before hand our good works, so that we will walk in them. While it is our will that we do them, God also has sovereignly prepared them beforehand. Same holds true for sin, in the view of Calvinists. Sin is the expression of man's will. God knows that human beings (especially the unregenerate) will sin. There is no question that they will sin. God places individuals in situations where their sinfulness will find expression in a way that looking back on it from the end of human history, God's sovereign plan will be clearly seen. This is demonstrated all throughout Scripture.God hardens Pharaoh's heart so that he will not repent. In fact, he gets more harsh, so that even after he has relented after his first born dies, he still goes chasing after the nation of Israel. God decrees that the military buildups of Assyria and Babylon will occur to test and judge His own people. He ordains that His prophets will die horrible deaths despite following Him. He decrees that His only begotten Son will die for me, and that the Pharisees would be the one to do it, and that one of the Twelve would be the one to betray Him. Therefore, I would conclude that "God's decree" is that from eternity past, God delared what would happen, what He would do Himself, what He would allow, and what He would prevent, so that He would be glorified in all things (Romans 8:28). God, by creating sinners, decreed that sin would occur as he would permit, for His glory. The sinful nature is ours, and we have sinful intents, but God directs through circumstance and other means how and when those sinful intents will be manifested. --Joe! |
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373 | But aren't they mutually exclusive? | Gal 2:17 | Reformer Joe | 13871 | ||
Bob: You wrote: "In this post, you use the phrase "God's sovereign will" a couple of times. By this, do you mean 'God's predetermined, unchangeable plan which includes everything that comes to pass in time?'" I do. You also wrote: "How does the concept of God "actively permitting" something fit into the concept of God "absolutely predetermining" every detail of history before any of it began? As I understand it, the concept of God "actively permitting" something must mean that there was *real* choice available (ie. that there really was both the *ability* to choose and the *opportunity* to choose), and that, although God would certainly have known what the choice(s) would be, He did not pre-destinate what those choices would be." I don't consider "decree" and "predestination" to be synonymous. Predestination, in my view, is the element of decree which reflects what God will actually do Himself. Biblically, the term is used to describe the eternal destiny of those whom He regenerates, and that is wholly a work of God in the Reformed view. Of course, we are heading into some pretty deep philosophical waters when we start to discuss God's choices and our choices with relationship to time, and grasping all the nuances of that could very well be out of our reach. Perhaps one good way to examine the notion that God limits our freedom without excusing us from the blame for our sin is to examine sin from the perspective of human nature. Human beings are sinful by nature; EVERYTHING a non-Christian person will do will be displeasing to God, simply because the unregenerate are slaves to sin and acting in accordance with their nature. this is the idea of total depravity. There is not one fiber of our unsaved selves that is not corrupted by the Fall. In this sense, the unregenerate cannot help but sin. Therefore, since God allows the existence of humanity, there can be no question that he allows humans to sin. Sinners are what we all once were by our very nature. What God does control, however, is how that sin finds expression (i.e how that sin is carried out). In my limited perspective, it would seem that he could do that in several ways. Simply denying a particular human's access to opportunity would not change the fact that he will sin, but it will control how he will sin. For example, if I were a misanthropic person who wanted to destroy humanity, God could take that desire within me and use it ultimately for His glory without putting in my hands the political and/or technological power to accomplish my desires. I am still the one sinning, but God controls how and when I am able to exercise what I want to do. Another way he actively directs the "flow of sin," so to speak, is through direct suggestion. god knows that Satan is bent on destruction and will use any opportunity he can get to bring ruin to God's creation. Why, then, does God say to him, "Have you considered my servant Job?"? God did not suggest that Satan do anything to Job, but knowing Satan's nature and voltitional bent toward eveil, he pointed him in the direction of Job without authoring the destruction that Satan would bring upon him. Circumstances contribute to how sin is expressed as well, and circumstances are controlled by God. Circumstances by their very nature limit our ability and opportunity, not to BE sinful (as that is a given), but HOW we sin. Therefore, we do not have unlimited choices about the manner in which we will sin, by virtue of the limitations and circumstances in which God has placed us. However, God, knowing our hearts from eternity past, and our will and determination to sin, has already determined how, when and where we will be able to exercise that will to sin, all for his glory. Again, the sin comes from our fallen nature, but it is God who has decided "how much rope" and even "what rope" to give us. --Joe! |
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374 | All of God's decree is not predestined? | Gal 2:17 | Reformer Joe | 13974 | ||
Bob: What did you think of my view that the intentions of man are the source of sin rather than the way in which those intentions are carried out? While God does not control our wills, he does limit the way in which the individual wills of humans can express themselves. Therefore, by sovereignly placing us in various times and places in human history, and by limiting and extending our sphere of influence, and by means of such tools as divine interaction and human interaction and circumstances and a whole host of other things we can't even begin to wrap our minds around, God controls the manifestation of the sinfulness in our hearts. There is much in the Bible that supports the idea that the sin of humans is not merely the actions themselves, but the sinfulness that exists in the mind/heart: "So every good tree bears good fruit, but the bad tree bears bad fruit. A good tree cannot produce bad fruit, nor can a bad tree produce good fruit." --Matthew 7:17-18 In Matthew 5, in the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus says that those who hate their brother have committed murder in their hearts, and those who lust after a woman have committed adultery in their hearts. If God limits my opportunity to have sex with a woman who is not my wife, that does not mean that the lustful intention is not there, and therefore, the sin already exists. If I do indeed commit adultery with my body rather than just my heart, that is an outward expression of MY sinful intentions, but obviously it is something that God has incorporated into His sovereign plan, because it occurs. God did not tempt me; God did not place the evil desire in my heart; God did not encourage me. However, if I am an adulterer, God brought the woman across my path in the first place, controlled the circumstances which allowed us the time to develop whatever relationship there would be, controlled the circumstances which allowed us the opportunity to find the secluded spot to commit our sin, and he didn't prevent us from acting out our sinful desires. Again, the desires are ours, the sin we commit is ours, but it is God who controlled all external circumstances which paved the path to the adultery. This brings to mind another good example. After the Bathsheba incident, God said to David (through the prophet Nathan): "Thus says the LORD, 'Behold, I will raise up evil against you from your own household; I will even take your wives before your eyes and give them to your companion, and he will lie with your wives in broad daylight. Indeed you did it secretly, but I will do this thing before all Israel, and under the sun.'" --2 Samuel 12:11-12 Here we see that God "will raise up evil" from within David's own household to dishonor him the same way that he dishonored Uriah. God says specifically that this is what he WILL do, not what may happen as a result. He gives specifics on how this will occur and who will witness it. In other words, God decrees it. And the decree is fulfilled in a few chapters with his son Absolom: "Then Absalom said to Ahithophel, 'Give your advice. What shall we do?' Ahithophel said to Absalom, 'Go in to your father's concubines, whom he has left to keep the house; then all Israel will hear that you have made yourself odious to your father. The hands of all who are with you will also be strengthened.' So they pitched a tent for Absalom on the roof, and Absalom went in to his father's concubines in the sight of all Israel." --2 Samuel 16:20-22 We can conclude the following from this part of Scripture: 1. David's sin with Bathsheba and the sin of Absolom are interrelated, namely, that the latter is judgment upon David for the former. 2. God did not "make" Absolom sin. He was led into his sin by his own rebellion against David and directed by the advice of Ahithophel. 3. God said it would happen, and it did. His decree was for evil to befall David. How else could we put these two passages side by side and conclude that God did not decree that the evil would occur, and that it was decreed to serve God's purposes? Absolom's sinful intent was already present, and God directed that, providing the circumstances so that Nathan's prophecy would come true at the hands of Absolom. What do you think? --Joe! |
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375 | Curse of the law | Gal 3:13 | Reformer Joe | 70059 | ||
The Law itself is good. It is the violation of the Law, due to our sinful and rebellious nature, that brings the curse. Deuteronomy 28 speaks of the consequences of the violation of the Law for the covenant people of Israel. And Hell is the obvious eternal result for failing to meet the standards of the Law (hence the need for Jesus to meet them for our sinful, rebellious selves). Paul also quotes Deuteronomy 27:26 to illustrate how this curse is brought about: 'For as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse; for it is written, "CURSED IS EVERYONE WHO DOES NOT ABIDE BY ALL THINGS WRITTEN IN THE BOOK OF THE LAW, TO PERFORM THEM' --Galatians 3:10 --Joe! |
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376 | What's the importance of Old Testament? | Gal 3:24 | Reformer Joe | 40987 | ||
Oh, what importance there is to it! The Old Testament, just like the New Testament, is all about Jesus Christ! The human characters in God's unfolding drama in the Old Testament are but supporting characters in God's great redemptive history of humanity. Just flip through the New Testament, focusing on books like Matthew, Romans, Galatians, and Hebrews, and look how much the Old Testament is quoted to show that it spoke of Jesus just as Peter tells us (1 Peter 1:10-12). The Old Testament cannot be understood properly, unless we take into account that in its entirety the OT points directly to Christ, the coming Redeemer promised to Adam and Eve in Genesis 3:15 and to Abraham in Genesis 12 and Genesis 15 and to the psalmists (Psalm 2, 22, etc.) and to the prophets (Isaiah 53). The Old Testament is a Jesus book! For a very warm and revealing look at this truth, I recommend a book called _Christianity is Jewish_ by Edith Schaeffer. You can find or order a copy from just about any Christian book store, or from the usual spots on the Internet. It is a fascinating look at how the Old and New Testaments fit together, and anyone interested in communicating the Messiah to their Jewish friends and neighbors simply must read this book! --Joe! |
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377 | What's the importance of Old Testament? | Gal 3:24 | Reformer Joe | 41648 | ||
Jesus even used the whole Old Testament to talk about Himself: "Then beginning with Moses and with all the prophets, He explained to them the things concerning Himself in all the Scriptures." --Luke 24:27 Look at that verse in its context to see the importance of the OT. --Joe! |
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378 | Jews rqrd to follow the law in the O.T. | Gal 3:24 | Reformer Joe | 64784 | ||
We are commanded to obey the moral law of God as well. We are saved by faith, but that faith will result in works which correspond to the moral guidelines Moses gave the Israelites as well. The Jews were never saved by following the commandments. The moral law taught them how God's covenant people should live, and apply to us as well. The Holy Spirit also uses the law to convict people regarding their sin. The sacrificial law pointed to the Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world. The ceremonial cleanliness and dietary laws distinguished Israel from the nations around them and do not apply to Gentiles at all. "For the promise to Abraham or to his descendants that he would be heir of the world was not through the Law, but through the righteousness of faith." --Romans 4:13 --Joe! |
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379 | Is "slavery" condemned in the Bible? | Gal 3:28 | Reformer Joe | 48775 | ||
"Is there any condemnation of slavery in the Bible?" Nope. Lifelong servitude is forbidden in the Mosaic Covenant, and master-slave relationships were governed by Christ-like principles (Ephesians 6:5-9; Colossians 3:22-4:1; among others). It was God's decree that slavery was to continue, and that He would call both masters and slaves to Himself as His children, making people from both groups His own. In other words, while not giving a nod of approval to slavery itself, and while cruelty toward slaves was expressly forbidden, God utilized the system to glorify Himself: "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus. And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's descendants, heirs according to promise." --Galatians 3:28-29 Jaknik, please let us know exactly what your agenda is here. There are guidelines for posting on this Forum, listed at the bottom every time before you make your final submission. If you would like to debate the inerrancy, inspiration, and infallibility of Scripture, or simply attack the God of the Bible, there are a multitude of sites on the net that serve that purpose. However, this is not one of them. Again, I warmly welcome any friendly debate on the reliability of Scripture and the nature of God, but this is simply not the place for it. Feel free to email me or Tim to continue this discussion, but I must ask you to adhere to Lockman's guidelines if you wish to continue posting here. --Joe! |
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380 | How can a believer overcome sin? | Gal 5:24 | Reformer Joe | 69328 | ||
"So then, brethren, we are under obligation, not to the flesh, to live according to the flesh-- Verse Info. Notes Rom 8:13 for if you are living according to the flesh, you must die; but if by the Spirit you are putting to death the deeds of the body, you will live." --Romans 8:12-13 I recommend an excellent book called _The Pursuit of Holiness_ by Jerry Bridges. The question you are asking is covered there in great biblical detail. http://www.discerningreader.com/pracofgodpur.html --Joe! |
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