Results 301 - 320 of 500
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Reformer Joe Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
301 | Was Abraham a jew? | Rom 4:1 | Reformer Joe | 40432 | ||
Jews are descended from Jacob, who was Abraham's grandson. Therefore, technically Abraham was not a Jew, but an ancestor of the Jewish race. --Joe! |
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302 | confused | Rom 4:5 | Reformer Joe | 54801 | ||
I have heard of it, but disagree with it. Between 150 and 175 years ago, this idea sprang up within the church, thanks to a man by the name of John Nelson Darby and his successors. The basic idea is that there have been seven periods of "testing" for human beings, and that God has dealt with them in different ways regarding salvation and other matters. The Bible clearly communicates, however, that everyone in human history who has been saved has received this salvation through God's grace through faith in God's redemption, which was shown in the first century to be His own Son, Jesus Christ. While this theology, known as dispensationalism, is quite widespread among the evangelical churches today, it is not something that has been held by the church throughout the majority of its history (and therefore it is not "Original"), nor does it really stand up to scrutiny from the Scriptures. Now I am sure, in true Reformer Joe fashion, that this post will bring about a flurry of response, so you will get the other point of view before too long as well! In the meantime, you can read about it on this site which holds the same historic view that I do regarding these "periods": http://www.pbministries.org/books/pink/Dispensationalism/dispensationalism.htm --Joe! |
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303 | What is imputed righteousness? | Rom 4:6 | Reformer Joe | 52659 | ||
Properly speaking, Christ's righteousness is imputed to us (credited to our account) by means of faith. The Scriptures variously call it the righteousness that is "of faith" (Romans 4:13), "by faith" (Romans 9:30), "based on faith" (Romans 10:6), "through faith (Philippians 3:9), and "according to faith" (Hebrews 11:7). Nowhere do we see that faith actually BECOMES righteousness. The doctrine of imputed righteousness teaches that the righteousness that gets us to heaven is Christ's very own, applied to us by the Holy Spirit as a result of faith. --Joe! |
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304 | Imputed Righteousness | Rom 4:6 | Reformer Joe | 52688 | ||
Steve: You wrote: "1. Is the Reformed position given accurately?" Not really. The Gentiles were never "under the Law," but as believers we are called to follow God's moral will, which is reflected in the moral commandments of the Law. The whole, "when God looks at me, he sees Christ" thing could not be further from the Reformed position. What the original poster described as his own position is much closer to the Reformed view. Again, imputation does not mean that we are GIVEN Christ's righteousness (i.e. "made righteous"). That is infusion, the position of Rome at the Council of Trent. He is correct about the Greek word tranlated "imputeth," but the Reformers did not declare it to mean something different than reckoning us righteous because of Christ. This may seem like a small distinction, but it is an important one. Faith is not the grounds for our justification. We are not simply declared righteous because we have faith in Jesus Christ. While that is all WE do to be saved, Jesus Himself had to do the work of living a sinless life and dying a substitutionary death and rising from the dead. While God sees us, by means of our faith we are identified with Christ in his sinless life, death, burial, and resurrection. (Romans 5 and 6 explain this in detail). So your fellow poster errs on the other side of the issue. While God does not "see only Christ" when He sees me, He also does not just see ONLY me. In some inscrutible way, the Father sees me CLOTHED with Christ's righteousness; he takes both me AND Christ into account, and sees me as me, but declares me as righteous because of His Son's work on my behalf, applied to me by the Holy Spirit according to the foreknowledge and plan of the Father. All three persons of the Trinity are at work in our salvation, and Christ is the one who is the second Adam, righteously living and dying for all those whom He represents before the Father. --Joe! |
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305 | What is the new self? | Rom 4:6 | Reformer Joe | 52911 | ||
"Then you are striving to become more perfect than Heb 10:14 says you are. More power to ya, bro. You are going to need it." You keep on assuming that you are right in your interpretation of Hebrews 10:14. You aren't. I have already adressed both 1 Thess 5:23 and Ephesians 4:24. You repreating yourself contributes nothing to this discussion. Why don't you address what I wrote before instead of going in circles? You do not become more right the more times you say precisely the same thing. The old nature is one that was depraved and totally bent against God's law. Incapable of submitting to God's law. Totally depraved. The new nature is one that is disposed toward obeying God, and destined for glory. It is not perfect, but becoming so, by the power of the Holy Spirit's work of sanctification. Please explain in detail how the Greek stipulates a one-time act, not that it supports your point that we are already that new self and therefore should have no need to "put it on." --Joe! |
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306 | What is the new self? | Rom 4:6 | Reformer Joe | 52922 | ||
"I am left to conclude then that you think that the new self gets put on when we die." On what do you base that conclusion? I said that the "new self" is something that Christians are to put on, which means that it is not our present nature. We are in tension in this life between the "old self" and our "new self." The old self constantly needs to be put away. Look at the characteristics of the old self. I do not know how long it has been since God has called you to himself, but I would imagine that some of those aspects of the "old self" rear their ugly heads in your life like they do mine. Likewise, have either of us completely put on the "new self" as Paul describes it here? We certainly see some of the characteristics described in Ephesians 4 as characteristic of our new lives, but we have not completely burned the old garments. Notice also that the old self is something that is cast off and the new self is something that is put on. However, a new creature is what we ARE. See the difference here? The new creature that we are initially fits in the old clothes as well as the new ones, but as God gradually renews our mind and wills (Romans 12:1-2), we like the new threads a lot more and more. We gradually become in practice what God has declared us to be because of Christ. In other words, God DECLARES us righteous and then gradually MAKES us righteous (initial justification which initiates lifelong sanctification). --Joe! |
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307 | What is "Hope"? | Rom 5:5 | Reformer Joe | 85101 | ||
I think a good working definition for biblical hope is "an eager anticipation of the arrival of the blessings God has promised to us in the future." It is more than just wishing or crossing our fingers that things will be all right, and it is not a trust in uncertain things (i.e. in something that God has not promised us as part of our future). In the Old Testament, the faithful remnant of Israel in captivity (like Daniel) looked forward to the end of their captivity. God promised that their exile would last 70 years, and those who believed in God's promises prayed and eagerly expected the time when they would return home. That is hope. For Christians today, we read: "For our citizenship is in heaven, from which also we eagerly wait for a Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ; who will transform the body of our humble state into conformity with the body of His glory, by the exertion of the power that He has even to subject all things to Himself." --Philippians 3:20-21 I understand hope to be this "eager awaiting" of Christ's return and our glorification. Paul even refers to the second coming as a "blessed hope" (Titus 2:13). Therefore, I think that faith is the confidence in God's trustworthiness, and hope as the Christian's eager waiting and longing for his trustworthy promises to be fulfilled. I think that you have asked a very good question, and I am eager to see how others weigh in on it. --Joe! |
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308 | Christ dying only for elect? | Rom 5:6 | Reformer Joe | 5703 | ||
Well, if you hold to election as I do, one has a real problem if he doesn't hold to limited atonement. If Christ paid for the sins of everyone, why isn't everyone going to Heaven? What I mean is that if my next door neighbor never makes a decision for Christ, how could he be punished for his sin if Christ already paid the price 2000 years ago? As others have said in this thread, the argument for limited atonement is indeed married to the doctrine of unconditional election, which finds its biggest support in Jesus' statements in John 6:35-65, Paul's analogy of the potter in Romans 9, and Paul's very clear presentation of divine choice in Ephesians 1. This is by no means the only scriptural support for election; but as it has already been made clear, there are already at least a dozen threads on that one. The doctrine of limited atonement is inseparable from unconditional election, though, for the reason stated above. In addition, why would he cause his Son to suffer for those who are going to die in their sins? Either Christ was the propitiation for the sins of only those who will believe in Him, or else both Christ AND the unbeliever will face God's wrath for exactly the same sins! Doesn't seem terribly just, does it? A final argument for limited atonement stems from the idea of God's sovereignty. If we say that Christ died for ALL the ungodly (i.e. all humanity), then the fact that there will be people in Hell demonstrates that Christ was unable to save all. He died for their sins, and yet he didn't save them? Doesn't make a lot of sense to me. Nowhere in Scripture do we find this idea that Jesus was a "potential" savior for some, but an "actual" savior for others. Anyhow, that's the way I see it! Now let me know your thoughts. --Joe! |
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309 | Holy Spirit's power of Conviction | Rom 5:6 | Reformer Joe | 5756 | ||
When we analyze a set of four verses of Scripture (such as the four you cited), it is always best to get a broader understanding of those verses by looking at the larger context of what is being said. In this case, let us look at John 14-17 to examine exactly what John's (and moreover Christ's) understanding of both what the "world" is and what the Spirit's role is. Does the fact that the Holy Spirit will convict the world of sin mean that everyone will be enabled to accept Christ? Well, in John 14:17 says that "the world cannot receive [Him], because it does not see Him or know Him., but you know Him because He abides with you and will be in you." Therefore, the world is unable to receive the Spirit, so that classifies the "world" in a different category than the disciples, whom Jesus is addressing. It says that the world does not see Him, doesn't even know Him! In John 14:26, we see that the Holy Spirit is the One who will teach the disciples all things. Therefore, the One whom the "world" doesn't even know will teach the disciples. I see no salvific interaction between the Spirit and the world yet. In John 15:18, the "world" will hate the disciples, just as it hates Christ. In the next verse, we see that the disciples are "not of the world," that Christ CHOSE them, and as a result, the world hates them. Therefore, we see reinforced a clear division between the world and the ones who are called by God. In verse 26 we see that the Spirit will testify about Christ with the disciples, but there is no indication that everyone will be free to accept the Spirit's testimony. In fact, Christ has just promised them the opposite from the world. Again in verse 16:13 we see that the Spirit will be the active guide to truth. If the Spirit is here to "try and convert everyone," why does our holy, sovereign God fail in his mission? Perhaps that isn't his mission after all... Verse 17:6 reinforces this: "I have manifested Your name to the men whom You gave me out of the world; they were Yours and You gave them to Me, and they have kept Your word." Again, God GAVE them to Him out of the world. Who is consistently the active agent in bringing people out of the world? ALl througout the Bible, we see it is God who (unaided by our "free will") chooses individuals out of the world and gives them to Christ. Therefore, contrary to your post, the world does NOT include "everyone." Conviction of sin does not lead to ability to repent and choose Christ. It is merely a declaration of guilt and judgment, which is reinforced by passages such as Philippians 1:27-28. Our presence here on earth is not to "win all the lost." It is to proclaim God's truth, to be the Holy Spirit's visible instruments through which He calls the elect, and to be the embodiment of the "sign of destruction" to those who will die and face just punishment. Finally, it is not by man's wisdom that I claim to "understand the intricate workings of GOD." I have the Holy Spirit, as I assume you do; and I can read the Bible, as I am sure you can. The Bible is the source of our revelation, which brings us back to my previous question: is the notion of even a spark of spiritual life to choose to follow Christ a product of man's wisdom which man brings to the words of the Bible; or is it clearly revealed to be a trait that man possesses? If it is the latter, please enlighten us as to the support for it and also explain away passages such as Romans 3, written after Pentecost, which clearly states that man's spiritual condition is DEAD, DEAD, DEAD. Please demosntrate how anyone dead can do anything to save himself? This debate may be old and tired to you, but it does speak fundamentally to how we view God and how we conduct evangelism. It is highly important, even though it is not a salvific issue, that we get it right. How has God revealed his intentions with regard to salvation? What does the Bible have to say on man's supposed freedom? Take away the assumption that all men are equally aided by the Holy Spirit to receive Christ and see if the entirety of the New Testament supports such a thesis. Thanks for your comments! --Joe! |
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310 | Not my will? | Rom 5:6 | Reformer Joe | 5758 | ||
No we are not "puppets." We ARE, however, the creations of a sovereign God. He is in charge, not us. All humanity is sinful and deserving of an eternity in Hell. God has shown mercy to some of us, and withheld mercy from others. He can do that. He is God, and he is not obligated to save ANYONE. Why is it that so many fail to see Romans 9 as a point-blank, indubitably clear presentation of this truth? How can it be interpreted any other way? How arrogant it is for the creation to dictate terms of our own undeserved salvation to the Creator! We have been chosen before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1). that does not mean that we are born in a regenerated state. At some point in the life of every one of the elect, the Holy Spirit spiritually recreates the sinner (2 Corinthians 5:17), by His grace causing Him to accept Christ by faith, through no work of our own (Ephesians 2:8,9). Therefore, boasting is excluded (Romans 3:27). We are predestined to glory (Ephesians 1:11) from eternity past; but we are not actually regenerated and accept Christ until the Spirit makes us alive to do so. Now Christ, while he did assume human form, was in a completely diffrent category from us. He was not a slave to sin. He was not spiritually dead; he is the Bread of Life itself. Any free will Jesus may or may not have had was not hampered by sin. Thanks to our sin, we do not have that luzury. Make sense? While this is not an issue on which salvation hinges, I encourage you to examine yourself and see whether man's alleged freedom to accept Christ is a doctrine read INTO Scripture or derived FROM it. Thanks! --Joe! |
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311 | Dear InHzsvc, what do you mean by that? | Rom 5:6 | Reformer Joe | 6360 | ||
So Jonathan Edwards, the Great Awakener, was a heretic? Francis Schaeffer was a heretic? John Calvin was a heretic? Charles Spurgeon was a heretic? Augustine was a heretic? Martin Luther was a heretic? Wow. A long line of "election heretics" instrumentally used by God to help establish, reform, and increase the impact of His church (not to mention defend it against true heresies). --Joe! |
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312 | Pelagianism or Arminianism? | Rom 5:6 | Reformer Joe | 6775 | ||
Tim: Doesn't election (choosing) imply that some are set apart and that some are not? How can election really be called "election" if everyone is elected? Furthermore, does that jibe with Romans 9:15 ff.? Semi-Pelagianism and Arminianism are not identical, but what they do have in common is the notion that salvation is synergystic. In other words, that at some point we are capable of choosing Christ with only an "assist" from the Holy Spirit. Arminians declare that our depravity requires prevenient grace to enable us, while semi-Pelagians deny that we are completely and totally depraved in the first place (i.e. not spiritually dead, but spiritually "wounded"). Thanks! --Joe! |
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313 | I Cor 12:7 | Rom 5:16 | Reformer Joe | 49500 | ||
Because "gift" is what the Greek word "charisma" means. It is used in 17 verses in the New Testament, and the use of "manifestation" does not make sense when looking at all of the verses containing the word: "For I long to see you so that I may impart some spiritual gift to you, that you may be established;" --Romans 1:11 (imparting some spiritual manifestation?) "But the free GIFT is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the GIFT by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many. The GIFT is not like that which came through the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment arose from one transgression resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the free GIFT arose from many transgressions resulting in justification." --Romans 5:15-16 (does it make sense to you to talk about the gift of salvation as a free "manifestation" from God? Does a "manifestation" result in our being made right with God -- justification?) "For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord." --Romans 6:23 (the "manifestation" of God is eternal life?) "Yet I wish that all men were even as I myself am. However, each man has his own gift from God, one in this manner, and another in that." --1 Corinthians 7:7 (here he is talking about the "gift of celibacy," but it is interesting to note that each man has his own "charisma" from God...not that all have access to EVERY "charisma") "As each one has received a special gift, employ it in serving one another as good stewards of the manifold grace of God. Whoever speaks, is to do so as one who is speaking the utterances of God; whoever serves is to do so as one who is serving by the strength which God supplies; so that in all things God may be glorified through Jesus Christ, to whom belongs the glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen." --1 Peter 4:10-11 (are serving and speaking "manifestations"? Whatever they are, Peter indicates that each one has received "charisma," singular. Not that each one has received all "charismata," plural.) And that is why more than 99.9 percent of Christians agree with English translators in calling them "gifts." --Joe! |
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314 | Lanny, What is your definition of sin? | Rom 6:2 | Reformer Joe | 24075 | ||
Probably his definition would be something weaker than this: Sin is any want of conformity unto, or transgression of, the law of God. (Westminster Shorter Catechism, Answer to Question 14) ANY lack of conforming completely (heart, soul, mind, strength) to God's commandments or any violation of them in the slightest (in heart, soul, or mind) is sin. Who measures up? Only Christ. --Joe! |
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315 | What is "the Law" and grace about? | Rom 7:12 | Reformer Joe | 13390 | ||
Law (big "L"): Usually refers to the Mosaic Covenant, with its moral commandments, ceremonial rituals, and procedures of sacrifices for atonement. Often, "law" (little "l") refers to simply those moral commandments made by God that he intends man to follow. That includes everything from God's first commandment to Adam to every instruction we read in the epistles. Since man is depraved and cannot submit himself to God's law (Romans 8:7-8), God in his mercy extended grace (His favor, which none of us deserve in the slightest) to those who put their trust in Christ. Those who are believers in Christ, therefore, are indeed "under grace" (i.e. justified) and also are indwelt by the Holy Spirit, equipped to follow God's moral will for their lives (Romans 8:9). --Joe! |
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316 | Paul's evil practices Pre or PostJesus | Rom 7:19 | Reformer Joe | 64110 | ||
I take the opposite position from Tim. I believe that Paul is describing his post-conversion life in Romans 7, and here are MY reasons: 1. Romans 1 through most of Romans 3 treats the spiritual condition of the unregenerate Jew and Gentile. From that point through most of Romans 5, Paul describes the role of Christ in our justification. After that point, Paul is describing why the Christian should not live in sin. In other words, he seems to be describing the sanctification of the believer. The whole thing seems to follow a chronology from unregenerate life to justification through faith in Christ to the "not letting sin reign" in our mortal bodies. 2. It is obvious that a Christian is not free from the struggle with sin, and all of us continue to fail. Paul did not attain sinless perfection in this life any more than I will, so it is not inconsistent with Paul's internal struggle described in Romans 7. 3. Paul writes "For I joyfully concur with the law of God in the inner man, but I see a different law in the members of my body, waging war against the law of my mind and making me a prisoner of the law of sin which is in my members." (Romans 7:22-23). The unsaved person does NOT joyfully concur with the Law of God. The pagan does not struggle between serving God and obeying the residual sin in his life, because the unsaved person does not do ANYTHING that pleases God (Romans 8:6-8). 4. Paul is describing a struggle between the flesh (commonly used in the epistles as a description of our tendency -- even as Christians -- to sin) and the mind. Paul even says in the last verse that he is serving the law of God with his mind, another thing not characteristic of the unsaved individual. --Joe! |
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317 | Saved !! | Rom 8:1 | Reformer Joe | 77515 | ||
Yes. | ||||||
318 | The Spirit and the Word: How Related? | Rom 8:11 | Reformer Joe | 29288 | ||
Strongly suspecting that you will agree with my point of view, here we go: "But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I said to you." --John 14:26 The role of the Holy Spirit is that of a teacher. What does he teach and bring to their remembrance? All that Jesus said to them. In other words, the Spirit is not adding to the info that Jesus gave them, but rather bringing to their remembrance something that has already been verbalized. We get more into the insight of the Teacher's work from Paul: "But to this day whenever Moses is read, a veil lies over their heart; but whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away." 2 Corinthians 3:14-15 We see a connection between turning to the Lord and a veil being lifted. But note that the veil is being lifted in connection with the reading of Moses (i.e. the Scriptures). It is only by the power of the Spirit that the eyes of the blind can see the truth. But where is the truth found? The Scriptures. Jesus says the same thing: "Sanctify them in the truth; Your word is truth." --John 17:17 The word of God is truth. Where do we find the word of God? The Scriptures. However, there is a dynamic here which I do not think is explored enough. Do we have to have the Bible to know what God's will is? In one sense, it might surprise some to read that I say "no": "For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse." --Romans 1:18-20 In regard to the law of God, every man has the light of nature which demonstrates His power and His nature. This truth, however, due to our unrighteousness, is something we suppress in our darkened minds. Every human being knows on some level the duty s/he has to glorify God as humanity was created to do. Paul goes on in the next chapter: "For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified. For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus." --Romans 2:12-16 Every human being has a moral sense, a conscience that tells them the will of God. Therefore, the Gentiles without the written law again are without excuse, because they "show the work of the Law written in their hearts." However, it is important to note here that the people Paul are referring to here are not merely the people of God, but rather ALL PEOPLE. Therefore, this is not the work of the Spirit revealing God's law in any special way to the believer, but rather the light of creation and the moral sense which God has hardwired into every human being. So, why the Scriptures, if what to do is instinctively known to us? Because in our fallen state we walk in darkness, suppressing the truth. The will of God revealed in the Scriptures is a reinforcement of the light of nature, a more thorough revelation of His will for His people. In the Decalogue we see a "spelling out" of the general will of God to love him with all our heart, mind, soul, and strength; and to love our neighbor as ourselves. God in His grace gave His people this second revelation; so that despite the effects of the Fall on our hearts, we have a second, more thorough message from God specifically designed for our present state. But what about the present indwelling of the Holy Spirit? Let us take a look at that in another installment. --Joe! |
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319 | The Spirit and the Word: How Related? | Rom 8:11 | Reformer Joe | 29289 | ||
Then we have the gospel, which is found throughout Scripture in the Old Testament in type, promise, and prophecy, but which of course is most clearly revealed in Jesus Christ our Redeemer: "God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world. And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature, and upholds all things by the word of His power. When He had made purification of sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become as much better than the angels, as He has inherited a more excellent name than they." --Hebrews 1:1-4 Therefore, we have had Jesus, the clearest representation of God Himself as well as what it means to follow the law of God, dwelling among us. We now, since Pentecost, have the Holy Spirit dwelling within us to teach us. So we have God to tell us automatically, right? Well, consider a few things: 1. If the Holy Spirit has indwelt us all, why are there instructions for believers in the New Testament? Since all of the NT was written after Pentecost, why would God inspire so many commandments for believers if the Holy Spirit works independently of His Word? After all, God Himself lives within us, right? Obviously, God did not intend for us to rely on some "feeling" that the Holy Spirit gives us. 2. Why do the epistles refer to and quote the Old Testament so much? If we have the Holy Spirit working through us automatically, isn't all that "Old Testament" stuff for those who didn't have the Spirit of God? Apparently not. 3. If the Holy Spirit teaches us automatically, why is one of His gifts the gift of TEACHING? There is another external source of knowing and doing His will, established by God Himself. 4. The apostles clearly point out that unsound doctrine is already present in the first-century church, and time and again urge believers to hold to sound doctrine. Where do we find doctrine? The Scriptures, not in our minds. All of this centers on a pet passage of many people. Do we believe it? "You, however, continue in the things you have learned and become convinced of, knowing from whom you have learned them, and that from childhood you have known the sacred writings which are able to give you the wisdom that leads to salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work." --2 Timothy 3:14-17 Men of God become ADEQUATE through Scripture. Men of God become equipped for every good work through Scripture. The Holy Spirit does not need to reveal any new doctrine to us, because it is all there in Scripture. The Holy Spirit's work is to reveal the truth of Scripture to us, testify to the truth of Scripture, to work in us to will and to work to glorify Him as revealed in Scripture. The problem today with people who are looking for "more" generally rests in the fact that understanding Scripture takes work (2 Peter 3:6-17), and discipline is not something the lazy-minded like as much as a good stage show or "3 simple steps to holiness." --Joe! |
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320 | Scriptural Support Requested! | Rom 8:14 | Reformer Joe | 50189 | ||
Mommapbs: You wrote: "1. CAN we know if one is controlled by the Holy Spirit?" Well, if we are to believe Jesus, and the apostles, then YES! "You will know them by their fruits. Grapes are not gathered from thorn bushes nor figs from thistles, are they? So every good tree bears good fruit, but the bad tree bears bad fruit. A good tree cannot produce bad fruit, nor can a bad tree produce good fruit. Every tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire. So then, you will know them by their fruits."' --Matthew 7:16-20 "But I say, walk by the Spirit, and you will not carry out the desire of the flesh. For the flesh sets its desire against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh; for these are in opposition to one another, so that you may not do the things that you please. But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the Law. Now the deeds of the flesh are evident, which are: immorality, impurity, sensuality, idolatry, sorcery, enmities, strife, jealousy, outbursts of anger, disputes, dissensions, factions, envying, drunkenness, carousing, and things like these, of which I forewarn you, just as I have forewarned you, that those who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God. But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness, self-control; against such things there is no law." --Galatians 5:16-23 "So then, brethren, we are under obligation, not to the flesh, to live according to the flesh--for if you are living according to the flesh, you must die; but if by the Spirit you are putting to death the deeds of the body, you will live." --Romans 8:12-13 You also asked: "2. Does God's Word help mold and shape us into a form that is acceptable to God?" Well, I would not put it in those terms, since only Christ's human existence is one that in itself is acceptable to God. God the Holy Spirit does, however, through the ministry of the word, sanctify us in such a way that slowly but surely He makes us more like Christ. Psalm 19 and Psalm 119 are great places to wonder at how God uses His word to make us more like the Son. --Joe! |
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