Results 181 - 200 of 500
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Reformer Joe Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
181 | Is OT law appliable to NT? | Matt 5:18 | Reformer Joe | 50534 | ||
No, that cannot be what it means, because we see clear passages to the contrary: "For He Himself is our peace, who made both groups into one and broke down the barrier of the dividing wall, by abolishing in His flesh the enmity, which is the Law of commandments contained in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two into one new man, thus establishing peace," --Ephesians 2:14-15 The Council of Jerusalem described in Acts 15 shows that the ordinances of the Mosaic Covenant were not to be applied to the Gentiles. The entire book of Galatians addresses the issue of circumsicion, but also more generally the ceremonial law. Again, not for Gentiles. The Old Covenant of Moses was replaced by the Messiah with a new covenant for the church, taken from all nations. Hebrews 10 demonstrates that there is no longer any need for sacrifices, since Jesus is our once-for -all sacrifice. The shadow passes away once the reality has been revealed. The bottom line is that Gentiles were never part of the covenant God made with the nation of Israel. However, the moral commandments contained in the Law (the Ten Commandments) reflect God's standard of morality and are a good summary of the way God desires all to behave. So while the sacrificial and ceremonial laws were never given to people outside of Israel, the moral commandments of God apply to all peoples at all times. --Joe! |
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182 | Be perfect? | Matt 5:48 | Reformer Joe | 11713 | ||
In the Reformed tradition, there exists what is known as the law/gospel distinction. What is considered to be law is God's demands of righteousness from us. Since God demands complete obedience (i.e. complete holiness and righteousness), it should be evident that none of us ever measure up. The gospel is what God has done to compensate for our falling short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23), namely, the complete obedience of Jesus with regard to law and his substitutionary death and resurrection. The regenerating work of the Holy Spirit in the life of the believer in Jesus Christ enables us to begin our approach to the goal of righteousness, and even to become more righteous in practice. However, complete perfection and righteousness will only come when we are completely sanctified at the resurrection. This statement of Jesus definitely falls under the "law" category, since it demonstrates God's standard of righteousness. In the life of the Christian, it causes us to throw ourselves upon Christ as our advocate and proxy fulfiller of the law, and to rely on the Holy Spirit as our helper/sanctifier. --Joe! |
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183 | Shouldn't we obey ALL God's Word? | Matt 6:14 | Reformer Joe | 16385 | ||
Bill: The difference is that the New Testament (Hebrews in particular) tell us that the Old Testament system of sacrifice and feasts was a mere foreshadowing of what was fulfilled in Christ on the Cross: "For the Law, since it has only a shadow of the good things to come and not the very form of things, can never, by the same sacrifices which they offer continually year by year, make perfect those who draw near. Otherwise, would they not have ceased to be offered, because the worshipers, having once been cleansed, would no longer have had consciousness of sins? But in those sacrifices there is a reminder of sins year by year. For it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins." --Hebrews 10:1-4 However, nowhere will you find support that God's moral commandments are any less binding on the believer. We do not earn our salvation by them, but God-honoring works are the mark of every true believer. So says the post-Cross James: "What use is it, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but he has no works? Can that faith save him?" --James 2:14 James spends the rest of the chapter explaining why the answer is "no." This is not legalistic "you must earn your salvation by good deeds." Nor is it antinomian "no matter how your life is lived, you know that you are saved simply because you claim to believe a set of facts which may or may not have the slightest impact on your life whatsover." It is the Biblical idea demonstrated clearly in the answer to Westminster Shorter Catechism Question 35: "Sanctification is the work of God’s free grace, whereby we are renewed in the whole man after the image of God, and are enabled more and more to die unto sin, and live unto righteousness." This is the only way, in my view, to reconcile the importance that the entire Old and New Testaments place on faith AND works in salvation. Or, as the saying goes: we are saved by faith alone, but not by a faith that is alone. --Joe! |
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184 | What does "kingdom of God" mean? | Matt 6:33 | Reformer Joe | 4808 | ||
Now THIS is an excellent question, Hank! The Kingdom of God includes Heaven, for that is where God's will is done. However, it would seem from Scripture that there is more to it than just the eternal paradise waiting for those who are being saved. For example, it seems that the Jewish mindset of the day thought that the Kingdom of God would be a socio-political one, perhaps the monarchy to be re-established by the Messiah in Israel. For example, even the eleven asked Jesus if he was going to establish the kingdom at that time (Acts 1). In Luke 17, however, Jesus tells the Pharisees that the kingdom of God is already "in their midst." On the other hand, he tells his disciples to pray "Your kingdom come. Your will be done, On earth as it is in heaven." (Matthew 6:10). Dallas Willard, in his acclaimed book, _The Divine Conspiracy_ (a challenging read but a highly-recommended one), contends that this verse of the Lord's Prayer has a great deal to do with the idea of the kingdom of God. Willard says "...Gods' own 'kingdom' or 'rule' is the range of his effective will, where what he wants done is done." Obviously Willard considers the "kingdom of God " to have only one meaning, where it finds its truest expression in Heaven right now (and where it has always existed). However, the Kingdom also is likened to a mustard seed in Mark 4. It would seem that the Kindgom, from all the verses I reviewed in trying to address this fascinating question, is a kingdom with two aspects, one which eternally exists in glory, and one which is being established here in the church invisible, by those who are following Gods' will and being used as instruments for his glory. This question certainly does beg for much deeper examination than I have given it so far in this post; what do you think? --Joe! |
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185 | Are all Christians going to heaven? | Matt 7:21 | Reformer Joe | 10604 | ||
The main thrust of Jesus' commentary here in Matthew 7 is that not all those who call him "Lord, Lord" are followers of Christ. Those who truly put their trust in Christ will not refrain from doing God's will. That is not to say that believers do not sin at all (I wish I could honestly say that!); however, those who are not believers in Christ cannot even please God in the slightest, despite their apparent "good works" (see Romans 8:7-9 for the Scriptural backup on that one). A good way to interpret this verse is to look at its context, particularly those verses that follow it. Jesus explains this hard saying by comparing the one who truly trusts in him as one who builds his house upon a rock. In contrast, the one who does not truly put his trust in Christ alone is like one who builds his house on sand. Both have nice-looking houses, but it is the foundation which makes all the difference. This verse, in any case, is really a wake-up call to those who claim to be Christians. Do we truly build our lives on the foundation of Jesus Christ, or are we just paying Him lip service? True, saving faith will lead to a change in our lives and also result in obedience to God. Kind of rules out "easy believism," doesn't it? --Joe! |
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186 | where is all men are not going to heaven | Matt 7:21 | Reformer Joe | 24149 | ||
Here's a few more: Psalm 1 Matthew 7:33 John 3:16-18 Philippians 1:28-29; 3:18-21 2 Thessalonians 1:9 1 Peter 3:7-9 1 John 3:14 --Joe! |
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187 | What do the rest of you think? | Matt 7:24 | Reformer Joe | 54070 | ||
You wrote: "While I'm not the "rest of you", I wanted to share this verse" I hope you always feel welcome to contribute! This is the church at work, gathering around God's word together to understand Him more. You wrote: "We are partakers, not of everlasting life (life which has a beginning but no end), but of ETERNAL life, Christ's life, which has NO beginning and NO end, for He is eternal." I am certainly not "original languages man," but I think that the original words are the same for both "eternal" and "everlasting." If that's the case, then there is not really the distinction between "everlasting life" and "eternal life" that you support. Tim, Greek/Hebrew please? :) You are not really suggesting that our lives as Christians have no beginning, are you? You wrote: "I believe that this is what the writer of Hebrews is saying in Heb 11:39 where he says that all the OT believers did not receive the eternal life that was promised them during their life-times. But, in verse 40, we have received something better than they, eternal life - here and now in Christ." Let's look: "And all these, having gained approval through their faith, did not receive what was promised, because God had provided something better for us, so that apart from us they would not be made perfect." --Hebrews 11;39-40 These verses seem to indicate that we will be made perfect TOGETHER (OT saints and NT saints), because the Old Testament faithful would not be made perfect "apart from us." Therefore, this could very well be talking about the resurrection at the end of the age (1 Corinthians 15). The fact of the matter is that we have not been MADE perfect yet; that still remains for us (Philippians 3:20-21). And to head an anticipated response off at the pass, I do not think that that is what Hebrews 10:14 has in mind, either. --Joe! |
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188 | What is perfected for all time? | Matt 7:24 | Reformer Joe | 54077 | ||
You wrote: "f we have not been made perfect yet, then why does the writer say that we have been (past tense) for ALL time?" There are a number of ways that Hebrews 10:14 could be interpreted in light of the rest of Scripture. First of all, you mention this as past tense, which undoubtedly it is. The question is when this perfection actually takes effect in the life of the believer. If we look at the verse carefully, it is Christ's sacrifice that has made His saints perfect. Christ's sacrificed secured that. But was I perfect from the moment that Christ's sacrifice was made? Was I perfect almost 2000 years before I was born? Was I born in a state of perfection? Note that our faith is not mentioned here as perfecting us, but Christ's sacrifice. Secondly, it is obvious to us that we are not yet perfect. Not only do we still sin, but there still remains for all of God's people the final aspect of our salvation: our glorification at the end of the age, when Christ returns and we become in nature everything that Christ is in His human nature. We will be unable to sin and possess a glorified body in conformity with Christ's own. If we are already, really and truly "perfect," then we couldn't really say that there is any improvement that is coming, because it is possible by definition to improve on something that is already "perfect." So we could very well conclude that the past tense is used here to show that Christ's sacrificed has once for all secured the perfection of God's people. Christ's sacrifice has accomplished the task, but it is still a future application to us. This is seen in other passages of Scripture, such as when Paul states in Romans 8:30 that God "glorified" us. Taking that verse in isolation, we could conclude that we are already glorified (which would be a pretty sad state of affairs if this is the best it is going to get!). However, in the same chapter Paul writes: "The Spirit Himself testifies with our spirit that we are children of God, and if children, heirs also, heirs of God and fellow heirs with Christ, if indeed we suffer with Him so that we may also be glorified with Him." --Romans 8:16-17 Here glorification is presented as a future reality hinging upon our suffering with Christ. In the same chapter he writes that "we may be glorified" and that "those whom He justified He also glorified." Is our glorification a future event or a past one? The best understanding of this, and the one that conforms to the rest of Scripture, is that glorification is a future event, guaranteed in eternity past, according to God's foreknowledge and on the grounds of the atonement of Jesus Christ. And I hold that our glorification is what is being referred to in Hebrews 10:14. It is grounded in Christ's sacrifice 2000 years ago (the past), but awaiting its full realization at the end of the age (future). --Joe! |
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189 | Are the declared righteous righteous? | Matt 7:24 | Reformer Joe | 54235 | ||
You answer is in the question...justification is a JUDICIAL declaration. A judge declaring me not guilty does not change my nature. All other things being equal, I walk out of the courtroom identical in nature to the way I was when I went in. Now God does give us a new nature, but that is not the same as his judgment based on Christ's righteousness on our behalf. I would like you to address something that I brought up before. Does Romans 4:5 apply to us or not? --Joe! |
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190 | The dead bury their dead? | Matt 8:22 | Reformer Joe | 6276 | ||
Those who are not followers of Christ are spiritually dead. "And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience. Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest. But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, even when we were dead in our transgressions, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved)" -- Ephesians 2:1-5 --Joe! |
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191 | Are you refering to the thief ? | Matt 10:1 | Reformer Joe | 53974 | ||
Yes, I have been forgiven as well. All of God's people have been forgiven. However, you are saying that the thief on the cross was forgiven without any atonement being made for his acts of rebellion against an infinitely holy God. You are saying that God, who is perfectly just, whose eyes are too pure to look on evil (Habakkuk 1:13), simply shrugged his shoulders and said "Okay, you are forgiven; no sacrifice necessary." Wow, I wish Jesus had known how easy that would be! Then he would have NEVER had to come to earth and die for ANYONE. He could have just shown up and said, "Everyone's forgiven! I am going home!" How cruel of his Father to let him think that he would actually have to DIE and face God's infinite and holy wrath when it was completely unnecessary! Remission of sins without the shedding of blood! I am going to go clip Hebrews 9:22 out of my Bible right now! Little tip: Go read Romans 3:19-26. Although your eyes are blinded by Satan, you will see in the last verse how Christ' death was the grounds for our justification, so that God would be at the same time JUST and the JUSTIFIER of the one who has faith in Jesus. Leaving the sins of the thief unanswered for would not have been just, and it is thanks to Christ's sinless life and substitutionary death that EVERYONE who has ever been justified has been justified. Jesus died for the sins of Abraham and David and the thief on the cross and Peter and Paul and me. Any other scenario is (a) unbiblical and (b) ultimately makes Jesus' death an unnecessary one. --Joe! |
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192 | When do Mark and Luke join Jesus? | Matt 10:2 | Reformer Joe | 65811 | ||
Mark and Luke were not among the twelve apostles. Mark traveled with Paul and tradition holds that he was also a disciple of Peter, and may have been a follower of Jesus but not one of the apostles. Luke traveled with Paul and undoubtedly was in contact with other key figures in the first-century church. --Joe! |
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193 | what's the difference in these two | Matt 10:5 | Reformer Joe | 12659 | ||
I think that this is our first interaction, Mr. Chumley! My opinion on the matter is that the Bible must be read with common sense. Obviously, Jesus was not speaking to all individuals in Matthew 10, but rather he was giving specific instructions to the Twelve. However, the instructions were recorded in the Bible for the purpose of us reading them and learning from them. Verse 16 is an example of something he said to the diciples directly, but also could be considered a general truth for us as well. In other words, it is good advice for all followers of Christ, not only the ones to whom He was directly speaking at the time. We know that God does not forbid us from interacting with the Gentiles. Why? Because God has regenerated me and millions of other Gentiles throughout history, because so much of the New Testament (Acts, Romans, Galatians) makes it clear that the gospel is for Jews and Gentiles, and because verse 18 in this very chapter alludes to the fact that their persecution will be a testimony to the Gentiles as well. Therefore, discerning general truths from Scripture rather than applying specific situational instructions to our lives, and letting Scripture interpret Scripture are both excellent tools in wise interpretation and application of the word of God. --Joe! |
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194 | Old T. and New T. | Matt 10:5 | Reformer Joe | 12758 | ||
People who think there are two different Gods represented in the Bible need to study their Bibles more! I think the problem arises from people trating God's attributes as some kind of smorgasbord from which they can pick and choose the quialities they like and push the rest aside. The fact is that both the Old and New Testaments reveal the nature of God. For example, the Psalms give us a rich picture of God's lovingkindness and mercy, as does the fact that He doesn't utterly destroy Israel despite their constant and depraved rebellion against Him. The fact that he spares and even delivers Israel time and again demonstrates his grace and patience with humans (Judges is a very good example of that). Likewise, one doesn't have to read very far in the New Testament to get a clear picture of God's justice and wrath. From whose lips to we get our most thorough education on Hell? From those of the Lord Jesus Christ. In fact, it distresses me that the gospels are so often dismissed in favor of the Pauline epistles alone simply because the things that Jesus says are so incredibly uncomfortable to those who claim to be followers of him and are not being sanctified. However, God's wrath is clearly demonstrated through Paul in Scripture as well (Romans 2, Ephesians 2), as well as his justice (Galatians 6:7). God will be infinitely and justly hard on those who die in their sins. Likewise, He demonstrated his mercy and grace upon His chosen people in the Old Testament. And it was those people through whom he demonstrated His hatred of sin, His wrath, and His justice toward the nations who rejected Him. The God of the Bible does not have multiple personalities. It just seems that way sometimes because we gloss over the uncomfortable parts in the NT, thinking that the Christian life should be one of ease and comfort rather than the taking up of the CROSS that it is. --Joe! |
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195 | Jesus judgemental? | Matt 11:20 | Reformer Joe | 14642 | ||
How is this for judging? "Then He began to denounce the cities in which most of His miracles were done, because they did not repent. 'Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! For if the miracles had occurred in Tyre and Sidon which occurred in you, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. Nevertheless I say to you, it will be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon in the day of judgment than for you. And you, Capernaum, will not be exalted to heaven, will you? You will descend to Hades; for if the miracles had occurred in Sodom which occurred in you, it would have remained to this day. Nevertheless I say to you that it will be more tolerable for the land of Sodom in the day of judgment, than for you." --Matt 11:24 See Jesus dealing with the Pharisees. See what Jesus says after John 3:16. I wouldn't call it being judgmental, but He certainly is pronouncing judgment upon these individuals using God's holy standard. In other words, you conversation partner needs to read the gospels a little more closely if he thinks Jesus was a meek little guy who just went around speaking "warm fuzzies." Thanks! --Joe! |
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196 | T or F? "God is a gentleman." | Matt 13:1 | Reformer Joe | 83405 | ||
"But our God is in the heavens; He does whatever He pleases." --Psalm 115:3 --Joe! |
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197 | Are the wheat and tare in the church | Matt 13:24 | Reformer Joe | 38419 | ||
Jesus explains the parable in Matthew 13:36-43. Here is what we have: Jesus is the Sower of good seed (v. 37). The good seed itself are the redeemed, the Christians (v.38) The weeds are the children of the devil, the unregenerate, those who do not embrace Christ (v.38) The field itself is the world (v. 38) The devil is the enemy (shocking, i know! -- v. 39). Even though the field does not represent the church only, I think it is safe to say that some of those in the visible church are actually tares. Remember that in the parable both were allowed to grow together until the harvest (the judgment), and we also know that there are false brethren and those who do not truly follow Christ. In case you are worried about yourself being a "tare," remember that all those who truly are trusting in Christ's sinless life and substitutionary death and resurrection are among the "wheat.' Most of the time Jesus explains His parables to his disciples shortly after telling them. Such is the case in Matthew 13. --Joe! |
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198 | Kingdom of Heaven vs. Kingdom of God | Matt 13:24 | Reformer Joe | 46640 | ||
No difference. Matthew uses the term "kingdom of Heaven," while Luke uses the term "kingdom of God" in precisely the same contexts. --Joe! |
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199 | Matthew 15:26-27 | Matt 15:28 | Reformer Joe | 70436 | ||
I hold it to be a demonstration of the bigger picture of God extending his mercy to those beyond the ethnic boundaries of Israel. It is a difficult passage, but this exchange shows that the mercy of God is not only for the Jewish believer, but the Gentile believer as well through faith in Jesus Christ. --Joe! |
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200 | Are we there, yet? | Matt 16:18 | Reformer Joe | 4443 | ||
Well, the church has obviously been established (Acts 2), but Christ has not returned yet. Therefore, the church is still being built, as we are the living stones (1 Peter 2:5). The true church is firmly rooted in Christ, but will be a work in progress until Christ's return. Incidentally, if you have never taken the time to study church history, it is a fascinating read of how God has kept the gates of Hades from overpowering her. It gives you a real sense of continuity and helps see yourself in the whole context of "our people." I would recommend as a starting point _Church History in Plain Language_ by Bruce Shelley. --Joe! |
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