Results 1501 - 1520 of 1659
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Morant61 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1501 | Is the Bible itself evil? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Morant61 | 134993 | ||
Greetings Nevermind! You yourself mentioned in your post that you are not very well informed on the subject of religion or the Bible. May I make a suggestion? Read the Gospel of John through in it's entirety. Then, come back, and let's discuss it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1502 | Need information for the chapter Timothy | 2 Tim 3:16 | Morant61 | 150284 | ||
Greetings Mrs. Kurian! 2 Timothy 3:16 is simply stating that Scripture has God as it's ultimate source. It was not the product of man's thoughts or imagination, but God's Spirit. 2 Peter makes this even clearer. In 2 Pet. 1:16, Peter writes, "We did not follow cleverly invented stories when we told you about the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but we were eyewitnesses of his majesty." Indeed, he writes in 2 Pet. 1:20-21: "Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet’s own interpretation. 21 For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit." This last passage simply affirms that Scripture is never the product of the writers will, but of God's will. The Holy Spirit works through them in such a way that what they say and write orginates with God, not with them. Thus, Scripture is without error and perfect because God is perfect. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1503 | what is the Granville Sharpe's Rule? | Titus 2:13 | Morant61 | 197631 | ||
Greetings There is an established rule in Greek grammar called the Granville Sharp rule. It says, "When the copulative 'kai' connects two nouns of the same case, if the article 'ho' or any of its cases precedes the first of the said nouns or participles, and is not repeated before the second noun or participle, the latter always relates to the same person that is expressed or described by the first noun or participle; i.e., it denotes a farther description of the first-named person." (Dana and Mantey's, "A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament," p. 147.) This is exactly the case in Tit. 2:13, 2 Pet. 1:1, and 2 Pet. 1:11, all of which call Jesus God. The actual Greek text for this phrase reads: "of the Great God and Saviour Jesus Christ." I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1504 | Who wrote the letter to the Hebrews? | Hebrews | Morant61 | 8358 | ||
Greetings Stobor! I have been doing some reading on this question. Apparently, even the early church fathers had no clue who wrote the Letter to the Hebrews. A few late references mention that some thought Paul may have written it. One early African reference mentions Barnabas as being the author. Origen even wrote about the authorship of Hebrews, "But who wrote the Epistle God only knows certainly." The list of prospective authors over the years include: Paul, Barnabas, Luke, Clement, Silvanus, Apollos, Philip, and Priscilla. So, the external evidence is very inconclusive. The internal evidence suggests that Paul was not the author, based upon sytle. The most telling point I could find was the Heb. 2:3 seems to indicate that the author wot someone who personally knew the Lord. Paul, even though he was not a disciple of Christ, received his commission directly from Christ, so he probably would not have described his introduction to the Gospel in the manner found in Heb. 2:3. All we know for sure is that the author was acquainted with Timothy (13:23). Every position is a guess at this point. I have always been fond of the opinion that Apollos may have written this letter. There is not a single shred of evidence to support that position, so I am not dogmatic on it. Like Origen, I would say that only God knows in this case. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1505 | Two "wills" of God? | Hebrews | Morant61 | 45165 | ||
Greetings John! Not really! My understanding of sovereignty is this: 1) God ordains His grand scheme - which is to show mercy to all. 2) Within God grand scheme, He has given us the ability to choose - to respond to His grace or to reject His grace. 3) I reject the view of God's sovereignty which rules out any free will. But, do you see why I have been talking about this issue of clear statements. Calvinism muddies the water. "All" doesn't really mean 'all'. 'World' doesn't really mean 'world'. Now, 'will' doesn't really mean 'will'. :-) I firmly believe that Calvinism has to reject the clear meaning of these words simply because they do not support Calvinism. I always give my students one (among others) simple text of Biblical interpretation: The more hoops someone has to go through to explain why the text doesn't realy mean what it says, the more likely they are wrong. I don't think God made it that difficult. If He meant John 3:16 to apply to only the elect, He could have simply said: "For God so loved a select few that He gave His only begotten Son that they and only they might not perish" I'm not sure it would have had the same effect though! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1506 | SEEKING FOR THE TRUTH | Hebrews | Morant61 | 237714 | ||
Greetings FytRobert! Read Hebrews 7-10! This passage of Scripture explains that we are now under a new covenant and that the old requirements of the Law are no longer in force. This is why we no longer offer up burnt offerings - they are no longer needed. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1507 | Is the 7th "day" still going on? | Heb 4:6 | Morant61 | 132049 | ||
Greetings AlienResident! I would say 'No'! Hebrews 4:4-10 speaks on an enduring day of rest. God created for six days and then He rested. He has been resting ever since (in terms of creation). It says nothing at all about the length of the days of creation. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1508 | EXPLAIN HEBREWS 4:12 WHAT DOES IT MEAN? | Heb 4:12 | Morant61 | 32687 | ||
Greetings Elili514! Obviously the subject of Heb. 4:12 is the Word of God. What does the Word of God refer to in Heb. 4:12? One way of determining this is to look at how the author uses that particular word in the rest of his writtings, especially in the immediate context. In this case, Heb. 4:2 also uses the "the Word", though there it is translated as "the message". There, he says that the "Word" had no effect for it's listners, because they did not receive it by faith. What was the "Word" to which he refers? Look at verse 3. Here the author quotes the promise of Psalm 95:11. He then goes on to expound upon the fact that there is a "rest" which is still available to us, which must be received by faith. Those to whom the promise was originally given, rejected it and hardened their hearts. This brings us to Heb. 4:12. What does it mean? Simply this: God's Word, written or spoken, judges us. This judgement is based upon our response to it. The ones mentioned in verse 2 were disobedient and unfaithful to the Word which they heard and thus did not enter into rest. Our task, according to v. 11, is to make sure that we don't follow their example and to make sure that we receive His Word faithfully and obediently. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1509 | Any info on the Human side of Jesus? | Heb 4:15 | Morant61 | 34819 | ||
Greetings Xtrem4jc! I think that the verse you are looking for is Heb. 4:14. It says, "For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are—yet was without sin." Notice though that it says that He was "tempted in every way, just as we are...". It never says that He experienced everything that we will ever go through. Just to be a little humorous, He never rode in an airplane. He never got stuck in a big city traffic jam (at least not with cars)! :-) He did however experience every temptation we may face in life, yet without sin. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1510 | Jesus experienced every kind of trial? | Heb 4:15 | Morant61 | 68561 | ||
Greetings Cheryl! Try Heb. 4:15: "For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are?yet was without sin." Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1511 | Obedience a choice? | Heb 5:8 | Morant61 | 149463 | ||
Greetings Seedling! Maybe someone can give a better answer, but my understanding of this verse is as follows. This is a reference to His incarnation. As a man, Jesus had to endure all that we have to endure, yet without sin. Thus, He was tempted as we are tempted. Yet, He chose to obey the Father rather than disobey. This seems to be what this verse is saying. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1512 | Hebrews 6:4 | Heb 6:4 | Morant61 | 14586 | ||
Greetings Ren333! Disclaimer: I approach this verse from an Arminian perspective. The way I understand Heb. 6:4 is simply this: Hebrews is addressed to a congregation made up of primarily Jewish Christians. Because of persecution and false teaching, some of these Christians were tempted to go back to Judaism. The message of Heb. 6:4 is that if you turn your back on Christ, there is no other way of salvation. The same sort of concept is discussed in Heb. 10:26-29. The concept addressed is a knowing and deliberate rejection of Christ. Both of these passages describe someone who has known Christ and rejected Him. Such a person will not be brought back to repentance. How could they? They have known Christ's love and yet rejected it. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1513 | Lost my salvation? (Hebrews 6:4-6) | Heb 6:4 | Morant61 | 17813 | ||
Greetings JohnK! I understand your concern, but you need not be paralyzed with fear. There are two possible ways of looking at this passage, and neither one means that you are hopelessly lost. 1) Calvinistic Perspective: This view says that the passage is not talking about Christians. Therefore, the warning is not for you. 2) Arminian Perspective: This view says that Christians are addressed, but it is Christians who have "WILLFULLY" rejected Christ with full knowledge of what they were doing. Again, this would not apply to your circumstance. The basic context (I write from an Arminian perspective) is a group of Jewish believers who were seriously shaken in their faith because of persecution (see chap. 10 especially). They were seriously thinking of going back to Judaism. The writer of Hebrews, throughout the book, makes one simple point. Salvation is found in Christ alone, if you turn from Christ, there is not salvation. You and Peter both failed Christ, but you never rejected Christ. Peter was freely accepted by Christ, so are you my friend. Someone wrote earlier something to the effect that "it is those who are not worried about their relationship with Christ who need to be worried." I would agree. You may have failed, but you never rejected Him and you still desire to grow in grace. The message of Scripture to you is that "nothing can take you out of His hand." Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1514 | Is "quit crucifying" is the past ? | Heb 6:6 | Morant61 | 76017 | ||
Greetings Searcher! You wrote: "Anastaurountas (who crucify) is in the second aorist voice and is a present, active, participle, accusative, plural, masculine tense ... not just a present participle." I'm not sure where you got your information my friend, but it is not accurate. A verb cannot be both Aorist and Present tense at the same time. The verbs in Heb. 6:4-6 are parsed as follows: * have been enlighted (aorist, passive, participle, masculine, plural, accusative.). * have partaken of the heavenly gift (aorist, deponent, participle, masculine, plural, accusative.). * have shared in the Holy Spirit (aorist, passive, participle, masculine, plural, accusative.). * have tasted the word of God (aorist, deponent, participle, masculine, plural, accusative.). * have fallen away (aorist, active, participle, masculine, plural, accusative.). * to renew (Present, active, infinitive.). * they are cruciying afresh (present, active, participle, masculine, plural, accusative). * they are exposing Him to public disgrace (present, active, participle, masculine, plural, accusative). In the above list, all of the aorist tense verbs refer to past time, but the last three verbs (all of which are present tense) refer to continous action in the present time. Now, everything you wrote describing the Aorist tense is accurate, but not the parsing. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1515 | Can "present, active ..." verb stop? | Heb 6:6 | Morant61 | 76059 | ||
Greetings Searcher! It could be either in the sense that the kind of action is what is most in focus. In general: Aorist (and sometimes Perfect) participles express action which is antecedent to the main verb. Present participles express action which is simultaneous to the action of the main verb. And, future participles express action which is subsequent to the action of the main verb. However, nothing in any of these forms (with the possible exception of the Perfect) says anything about the action of the participle continuing indefinitely or stopping. So, in that sense it could be either. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1516 | what does "falling away" mean? | Heb 6:6 | Morant61 | 106271 | ||
Greetings Delirious! You asked for an honest answer, so I will give you one! :-) Don't trust your feelings! People are moody, even Christians! I have been a Christian for 33 years now, and I know from experience that life is filled with ups and downs. We cannot trust our feelings to be an accurate indicator of spiritual realities. What then can we trust? God's promises! For instance, 1 John 1:9 says that if we confess our sins that He is faithful and just and WILL forgive our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. You did things that you should not have done. You have not grown as you ought to have grown. Ask God's forgiveness and stand on the promise that He will forgive you, no matter how you feel! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1517 | What's the full meaning of Hebrews 6:4-6 | Heb 6:6 | Morant61 | 184693 | ||
Greetings Ladams! There are many posts dealing with this issue on the forum. You should use the search feature to find some of them. Here is a post that I have posted on this issue in the past. **************** Thanks for your patience! I was hesitant to go beyond what I wrote because of the difficulty of the verse. So, I have been doing some more research. Here is what I have concluded! The problem with Heb. 6:6 is that all of the verbs in this verse occur only one time in the New Testament. This makes it very difficult to be dogmatic about what they mean, since we have no context to compare them with. With that in mind, I believe the following: 1) That the author is writting to Christians, not pagans or hearers only! 2) That this passage is describing a continuing attitude or action! 3) That the person who persists in this attitude is lost! 4) That any sin or attitude can be repented of! Let's look at the progress of the passage. Beginning in verse 4, the passage says that it is impossible to renew to repentance those who: * have been enlighted (aorist participle). * have partaken of the heavenly gift (aorist participle). * have shared in the Holy Spirit (aorist participle). * have tasted the word of God (aorist participle). * have fallen away (aorist participle). The key, I think, is found in the last two verbs. I believe that they give the reason why these people cannot be brought to repentance again. These two verbs say that: * they are cruciying afresh (present participle). * they are exposing Him to public disgrace (present participle). All of the other verbs are aorist participles. They describe past actions. These last two are present participles describing present actions and attitudes. I think that the people described here are similar to those in Heb. 10:26 and 10:29. They are believers who despise the blood of Christ and wilfully sin against Him. The context of Heb. 6:7-8 would seem to support this. But, here is the key point. The impossiblity of renewing them to repentance seems to be tied to their current and ongoing attitude. I don't see anything is the passage that indicates that such a person can never be saved again or can never repent. It is impossible now, because they are crucifying, they are publicly shaming Christ, and they are sinning wilfully. If that attitude changes, I don't see any grammatical reason why they could not repent. One of the basic rules of interpretation is to let clear Scripture interpret less clear Scripture. Heb. 6:6 is not real clear. But, 1 John 1:9 is clear. No where else in Scripture are we told that it is impossible for someone to repent. Therefore, I would say that Heb. 6:6 desribes the lost condition of those who are actively and currently rejecting Christ wilfully. As long as they remain in this state of rejection, it is impossible for the to repent, since salvation is found only in the Christ they are rejecting. If they have a change of attitude toward Christ, I believe that this passage would no longer apply to them. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran ************** I hope you find it helpful! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1518 | difference between "LORD" and "Lord | Heb 7:24 | Morant61 | 68201 | ||
Greetings New Creature! In the example you provided, Psalm 110, there are two different words translated as 'LORD' and 'Lord'. 'LORD' is YHWH (Strong's Number 3068) and 'Lord' is Adonay (Strong's Number 136). Here is what the NIV preface says about their usage of 'LORD' and 'Lord': ************************** "In regard to the divine name YHWH, commonly referred to as the Tetragrammaton, the translators adopted the device used in most English versions of rendering that name as 'LORD' in capital letters to distinguish it from Adonai, another Hebrew word rendered 'Lord,' for which small letters are used." ************************* I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1519 | GOD gives Jesus the power to save? | Heb 7:25 | Morant61 | 151498 | ||
Greetings Novetta! I think that part of your problem is your translation of Heb. 7:25. This verse never says anything about 'God giving Jesus the power to save.' The text simply says that 'He is able to save.' Which translation are you using? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1520 | no more animal sacrifice | Heb 8:13 | Morant61 | 218691 | ||
Greetings YenlsaRap! Hebrews 7:27 Unlike the other high priests, he does not need to offer sacrifices day after day, first for his own sins, and then for the sins of the people. He sacrificed for their sins once for all when he offered himself. Hebrews 8:13 By calling this covenant "new," he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear. Hebrews 9:26 Then Christ would have had to suffer many times since the creation of the world. But now he has appeared once for all at the end of the ages to do away with sin by the sacrifice of himself. Hebrews 10:4 because it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins. Hebrews 10:10 And by that will, we have been made holy through the sacrifice of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. Hebrews 10:18 And where these have been forgiven, there is no longer any sacrifice for sin. These are just a few verses from an extensive treatment of your topic in Hebrews. Read through the book and you will find that: 1) The animal sacrifices did not save anyone in the first place. 2) They were only a foreshadowing of what Christ would ultimately do on the cross. 3) Now that He has offered the perfect sacrifice, no other sacrifice is necessary or needed. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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