Results 561 - 580 of 4232
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Results from: Notes Author: kalos Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
561 | Every NATION or every PERSON? | Matt 24:14 | kalos | 169313 | ||
Mark: He IS willing. He is not willing that any should not know Greek -- including you. But has he decreed that everyone SHALL learn Greek? Just kidding! :-) No irreverence intended. Kalos |
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562 | Church membership scriptural? | Heb 10:25 | kalos | 169312 | ||
It's pretty much standard policy that a given church (whether a denomination or a local church) prefers that those who minister belong to their church. For example, my church wouldn't normally appoint as pastors those whose only ordination is with another denomination. Seems reasonable to me. |
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563 | Do all share their opinions with us? | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 169309 | ||
Question: Does every forum member at one time or another express his opinion? Answer: On StudyBibleForum some withheld their opinion from us, but they were not really of us; for if they had been of us, they would have given us their opinion; but they withheld their opinion, so that it would be shown that they all are not of us. :-) |
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564 | Every NATION or every PERSON? | Matt 24:14 | kalos | 169307 | ||
Jeff: I agree with you about the Bible definition of various words. When I wrote of the ordinary definition I meant the ordinary Bible definition as well as the ordinary dictionary definition. But whenever someone redefines the word chosen/elect to make it mean not chosen, then they are straying from BOTH the dictionary and the Bible definition of that word. The Bible may apply a slightly different or enhanced meaning of a dictionary word, but rarely, if ever, does it reverse the ordinary dictionary definition. (Many English words now mean the reverse of what they meant 400 years ago. But that is an entirely different matter.) Grace to you, Kalos |
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565 | Jesus decended into hell? | Eph 4:9 | kalos | 169278 | ||
Will this thread descend into a lengthy debate over the meaning of the story of the rich man and Lazarus? I could be wrong now, but I don't think so! If there is sufficient interest in a sub-topic, then rather than end up creating sub-sub-topics and a mile-long thread, it would be better to take the sub-topic and use it to begin a separate thread. Grace to all, Kalos |
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566 | Every NATION or every PERSON? | Matt 24:14 | kalos | 169271 | ||
Jeff: We need to be very careful about who and what we listen to. If another poster ignores the ordinary definitions of the words choose, chose, and chosen (elect, elected) and invents new meanings to suit himself, then it becomes easy for him to explain away the Bible doctrine of election. Grace to you, Kalos |
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567 | Every NATION or every PERSON? | Matt 24:14 | kalos | 169255 | ||
WHAT DOES BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION 2 (continued from WHAT DOES BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION 1) 'Occasionally someone will suggest that God's election is based on His foreknowledge of certain events. This argument suggests that God simply looks into the future to see who will believe, and He chooses those whom He sees choosing Him. Notice that 1 Peter 1:2 says the elect are chosen "according to the foreknowledge of God the Father," and Romans 8:29 says, "whom He foreknew, He also predestined." And if divine foreknowledge simply means God's knowledge of what will happen in advance, then these arguments may appear to have some weight behind them. 'But that is not the biblical meaning of "foreknowledge." When the Bible speaks of God's foreknowledge, it refers to God's establishment of a love relationship with that person. The word "know," in both the Old and New Testament, refers to much more than mere cognitive knowledge of a person. Such passages as Hosea 13:4-5; Amos 3:2 (KJV); and Romans 11:2 clearly indicate this. For example, 1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was "foreknown before the foundation of the world." Surely this means more than that God the Father looked into the future to behold Christ! It means He had an eternal, loving relationship with Him. The same is true of the elect, whom we are told God "foreknew" (Romans 8:29). That means He knew them--he loved them--before the foundation of the world. 'If God's choice of the elect is unconditional, does this rule out human responsibility? Paul asks and answers that very question in Romans 9:19-20. He says God's choice of the elect is an act of mercy. Left to themselves, even the elect would persist in sin and be lost, because they are taken from the same fallen lump of clay as the rest of humanity. God alone is responsible for their salvation, but that does not eradicate the responsibility of those who persist in sin and are lost--because they do it willfully, and not under compulsion. They are responsible for their sin, not God. 'The Bible affirms human responsibility right alongside the doctrine of divine sovereignty. Moreover, the offer of mercy in the gospel is extended to all alike. Isaiah 55:1 and Revelation 22:17 call "whosoever will" to be saved. Isaiah 45:22 and Acts 17:30 command all men to turn to God, repent and be saved. First Timothy 2:4 and 2 Peter 3:9 tell us that God is not willing that any should perish, but desires that all should be saved. Finally, the Lord Jesus said that, "the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out" (John 6:37). 'In summary, we can say that God has had a special love relationship with the elect from all eternity, and on the basis of that love relationship chosen them for salvation. The ultimate question of why God chose some for salvation and left others in their sinful state is one that we, with our finite knowledge, cannot answer. We do know that God's attributes always are in perfect harmony with each other, so that God's sovereignty will always operate in perfect harmony with His goodness, love, wisdom, and justice.' ____________________ Article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives |
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568 | Every NATION or every PERSON? | Matt 24:14 | kalos | 169254 | ||
WHAT DOES BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION 1 [Jeff: I think perhaps the best I can do to clarify my understanding of the doctrine of election is to quote one of the many Notes I have previously posted on the subject. To read more of my posts, do an Advanced Search. After "were submitted by user" type: kalos. After "contain these Words" type: election. (Type both words without a period (.) after them.) Grace to you. --Kalos] 'Election is the act of God whereby in eternity past He chose those who will be saved. Election is unconditional, because it does not depend on anything outside of God, such as good works or foreseen faith (Romans 9:16). This doctrine is repeatedly taught in the Bible, and is also demanded by our knowledge of God. To begin with, let's look at the biblical evidence. 'The Bible says prior to salvation, all people are dead in sin-- spiritually dead (Ephesians 2:1-3). In this state of death, the sinner is utterly unable to respond to any spiritual stimulus and therefore unable to love God, obey Him, or please Him in any way. Scripture says the mind of every unbeliever "is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so; and those who are in the flesh cannot please God" (Romans 8:7-8, emphasis added). That describes a state of total hopelessness: spiritual death. 'The effect of all this is that no sinner can ever make the first move in the salvation process. This is what Jesus meant in John 6:44, when He said, "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him." 'This is also why the Bible repeatedly stresses that salvation is wholly God's work. In Acts 13:48 we read, "And when the Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord; and as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed." 'Acts 16 tells us that Lydia was saved when, " . . . the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul." 'Romans 8:29-30 states, "For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the first-born among many brethren; and whom He predestined, these He also called; and whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified." 'Ephesians 1:4-5,11 reads, "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will . . . also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will." 'Ephesians 2:8 suggests that even our faith is a gift from God. 'In 2 Thessalonians 2:13, the apostle Paul tells his readers, "God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation." 'Second Timothy 1:9 informs us that God "has saved us, and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was granted us in Christ Jesus from all eternity.' (continues in next post) ____________________ Article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives |
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569 | Jesus decended into hell? | Eph 4:9 | kalos | 169252 | ||
Luke 16:19-31, Lazarus and the Rich Man ____________________ "If hell fire is false and if self-awareness after death is also false, then Jesus is using false doctrines to teach a truth. Parables illustrate truth." ____________________ 'In Luke 16:19-31 is the story of Lazarus and the rich man. Basically, Lazarus is a poor man who suffers during life. The rich man is, of course, rich. They both die. The rich man goes to Hades. Lazarus goes to Abraham's bosom, another term for paradise. In Hades, the rich man lifts up his eyes and sees Lazarus far off. He cries out to Abraham and asks for mercy because he is in agony in flame. Abraham says no. Then the rich man asks if someone from the dead were to rise and go tell his brothers not to come to this terrible place. Abraham teaches him that that will not be done either. 'Some say that this is a parable. However, if it is, it is unique because no other parable actually names a person. It isn't a story. It is history. It really happened. But many who believe in no consciousness after death will say it is still a parable. The question then is, if it is? What is it teaching? If hell fire is false and if self-awareness after death is also false, then Jesus is using false doctrines to teach a truth. Parables illustrate truth. If it is a parable what does the consciousness after death symbolize? Also, what does the agony in flame symbolize? Are they not real? Of course they are. (...) 'Hades 'This word only occurs in the NT, ten times, and corresponds to the OT word "sheol." Jesus uses the word four times: Matt. 11:23; 16:18; Luke 10:15; 16:23. The other six occur in Acts 2:27,31; Rev. 1:18; 6:8; 20:13,14. 'It was probably the "subterranean abode of all the dead until the judgment. It was divided into two departments, paradise or Abraham's bosom for the good, and Gehenna or hell for the bad." In particular, in the account of Lazarus and the Rich man of Luke 16:19-31, it is the place of the conscious dead who are wicked. 'Sheol 'The Hebrew word Sheol is probably derived from a root "to make hollow," and was seen as the common receptacle of the dead and in the great many places the word appears in the OT it is referring to the grave. It is a place and is mentioned in Gen. 37:35; Num. 16:30,33; Psalm 16:10, etc. Sheol has many meanings in scripture: the grave, the underworld, the state of the dead. It was supposed to be below the surface of the earth (Ezek. 31:15,17; Psalm 86:13). (...) 'Conclusion 'Hell is a real place. It is not mere unconsciousness. It is not temporal. It is eternal torment. Perhaps that is why Jesus spoke more of hell than heaven and spent so much time warning people not to go there. After all, if people just stopped existing, why warn them? If it was temporal, they'd get out in a while. But if it were eternal and conscious, then the warning is strong. 'Jesus said, "And if your right eye makes you stumble, tear it out, and throw it from you; for it is better for you that one of the parts of your body perish, than for your whole body to be thrown into hell. 30"And if your right hand makes you stumble, cut it off, and throw it from you; for it is better for you that one of the parts of your body perish, than for your whole body to go into hell," (Matt. 5:29-30).' ____________________ (www.carm.org/doctrine/hell.htm) |
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570 | Jesus decended into hell? | Eph 4:9 | kalos | 169250 | ||
Mark: Thank you for a very clear and accurate explanation. God bless you, brother. You have done well here in writing for the benefit of others. Grace and peace to you, Kalos |
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571 | Every NATION or every PERSON? | Matt 24:14 | kalos | 169249 | ||
"He does not wish for any to perish." Jeff: Thanks for your Note. Sorry I've been slow to reply. I hope this helps answer your question. I believe the following will show that while God does not desire (wish for) any to perish, He nevertheless decrees that all who reject His grace will perish. Grace to you, Kalos "The Lord is not slow concerning his promise, as some regard slowness, but is being patient toward you, because he does not wish for any[4] to perish but for all to come to repentance." 2 Peter 3:9 (NET Bible) Footnote 4. "He does not wish for any to perish." '...the literary context seems to be against the Arminian view, while the historical context seems to be against (one representation of) the Calvinist view. The answer to this conundrum is found in the term "wish" (a participle in Greek from the verb boulomai). It often represents a mere wish, or one's desiderative will, rather than one's resolve. Unless God's will is viewed on the two planes of his desiderative and decretive will (what he desires and what he decrees), hopeless confusion will result. The scriptures amply illustrate both that God sometimes decrees things that he does not desire and desires things that he does not decree. It is not that his will can be thwarted, nor that he has limited his sovereignty. But the mystery of God's dealings with humanity is best seen if this tension is preserved. Otherwise, either God will be perceived as good but impotent or as a sovereign taskmaster. Here the idea that God does not wish for any to perish speaks only of God's desiderative will (what he desires), without comment on his decretive will (what he decrees).' ____________________ (http://www.bible.org/ cgi-bin/netbible.pl#note_3) |
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572 | Every NATION or every PERSON? | Matt 24:14 | kalos | 169176 | ||
Jeff: Your post, ID# 169128, has made my day. Your answer to my question is excellent: "Simply, that the gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the WHOLE WORLD, and to ALL NATIONS. Since it doesn’t say -to every person- then we shouldn’t attempt to make it say that." Like you, I had always heard Matthew 24:14 preached and taught to mean that EVERY individual will hear and have the opportunity to believe. But, as you said, since it doesn't say that, then we shouldn't attempt to make it say that. Someone has implied that since the great commission instructs us to preach the gospel to every creature and since God does not command without enabling, then this verse must mean that every last individual must hear the gospel before the end comes. But I don't agree with their conclusion. It is true that the Great Commission is to preach the gospel to every creature. It is also true that God enables us to do what he commands us to do. However, it is my view that commissioning a thing and enabling us to do a thing does not guarantee that the thing will get done by everyone and to/for everyone for whom it is meant. God has commanded and enabled us to do many things, but are they accomplished universally, i.e. in or by every believer? No, they are not. I have enjoyed your forum posts for a long time now. Keep them coming. I appreciate the replies from all of you who addressed my question, whether your choice was a, b, or not specified. Grace and peace to you, Kalos |
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573 | Every NATION or every PERSON? | Matt 24:14 | kalos | 169159 | ||
Steve: I want you to know how much I appreciate both you and Jeff and your participation in the forum. Jeff has given an excellent answer to the question about the voice in Acts 9:7 and Acts 22:9. Following is additional information on the subject. 'When Paul was on the road to Damascus he saw a light and heard a voice. Did those who were with him hear the voice (Acts 9:7), or did they not (Acts 22:9)? '(Category: misunderstood the Greek usage or the text is compatible with a little thought) 'Although the same Greek word is used in both accounts (akouo), it has two distinct meanings: to perceive sound and to understand. Therefore, the explanation is clear: they heard something but did not understand what it was saying. Paul, on the other hand, heard and understood. There is no contradiction.' (http://worthynews.com/ apologetics/101-51-55.htm) Grace to you, Kalos |
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574 | Email me! | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 169141 | ||
My email address is now available at my Personal Profile on this website. Grace to you, Kalos |
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575 | Praying in Tongues - One View | 1 Cor 14:14 | kalos | 169121 | ||
Praying in Tongues - One View 1 Corinthians 14:2,14 Young's Literal Translation 2 for he who is speaking in an [unknown] tongue -- to men he doth not speak, but to God, for no one doth hearken, and in spirit he doth speak secrets; 14 for if I pray in an [unknown] tongue, my spirit doth pray, and my understanding is unfruitful. J.P. Green's Literal Translation 2 For the one speaking in a tongue does not speak to men, but to God, for no one hears, but in spirit he speaks mysteries. 14 For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. 'What is the difference between "speaking in tongues" when one is baptized in the Spirit and "speaking in tongues" publicly? Also, what is the advantage of "praying in tongues" in one's private prayer life? ____________________ "tongues...the same in essence, but different in purpose" ____________________ 'There are at least four uses or purposes of unknown tongues, according to the New Testament:...(4) as a God-given provision for effective prayer and praise (1 Corinthians 14:2, 14). In all these cases, tongues is the same in essence, but different in purpose. The misunderstanding concerning these distinctive uses and purposes has brought great confusion among Christians. (...) 'Praying in tongues during private devotions is an additional ministry of the Holy Spirit. Many believers today testify that praying in tongues greatly enriches their spiritual lives. The limitations of intellect are overcome as the Holy Spirit quickens the human spirit in glorious expressions of worship and adoration. The quandary of limited vocabulary and the inability to express feelings and concerns of the soul disappear as a Spirit-imparted language flows out from the heart. It is as if heaven and earth, time and eternity, God and man all compress together in a glorious act of worship.' ____________________ http://ag.org/top/Beliefs/ baptmhs_faq_tongues.cfm#difference |
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576 | Speaking in Tongue | Acts 2:4 | kalos | 169120 | ||
As for a [private] prayer language, I don't see this taught anywhere in the 66 books of the Bible. I've heard about a prayer language all my life, but I suspect that the idea comes from interpreting people's experiences rather than a clear verse of Scripture. We never prove the validity of the Bible by experience; we test and examine experience in light of the Bible. And since there is no mention of the word "tongues" in Acts 4, John 14, Romans 8, the book of Jude or James 3:8, I do not see how anyone could find the doctrine of a prayer language in any of these passages. I have no need that anyone explain to me what a prayer language is. As I said, I'm familiar with the concept, having heard of it my whole life. What I am not familiar with is any Scripture to back it up. Grace to you, Kalos |
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577 | Was John The Baptist a messenger of God? | Matt 11:10 | kalos | 169093 | ||
blessedwright: In my previous reply the verses I quoted, when read in context, plainly show that John The Baptist was the messenger who was foretold. Please read those verses in context. Mt 11:14 And if you are willing to accept it, John himself is Elijah who was to come. Matthew 17:10-13 10 And the disciples asked him, “Then why do the scribes say that first Elijah must come?” 11 He answered, “Elijah does come, and he will restore all things. 12 But I tell you that Elijah has already come, and they did not recognize him, but did to him whatever they pleased. So also the Son of Man will certainly suffer at their hands.” 13 Then the disciples understood that he was speaking to them of John the Baptist. Grace to you, Kalos |
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578 | Every NATION or every PERSON? | Matt 24:14 | kalos | 169079 | ||
What does Matthew 24:14 mean? NASB Matthew 24:14 "This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come. AMPLIFIED Matthew 24:14 And this good news of the kingdom (the Gospel) will be preached throughout the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then will come the end. This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in/throughout the whole world as a testimony to all the nations. What does this mean? Some say this means a) the gospel will be preached to EVERY LAST PERSON ON THE FACE OF THE EARTH before the end will come. Others say that b) in/throughout the whole world...to all the nations means the gospel will be preached to every NATION, but NOT to every last state, county, city, neighborhood, street, and individual in the world. Which of these two do you think is meant in the verse? And why do you interpret it as you do? I invite you to answer the question, regardless of which way you interpret the verse. I ask because I really want to know what others think. Other translations of Matthew 24:14 follow. Thank you in advance for your replies. Grace to you, Kalos Matthew 24:14 The Holy Bible, New International Version® And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come. Holy Bible, The New Living Translation And the Good News about the Kingdom will be preached throughout the whole world, so that all nations will hear it; and then, finally, the end will come. The New King James Version And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in all the world as a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come. Holy Bible, English Standard Version And this gospel of the kingdom will be proclaimed throughout the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come. |
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579 | "the one who endures..will be delivered" | Matt 24:13 | kalos | 169078 | ||
What does Matthew 10:22 mean? Matthew 10:22 Holman Christian Standard Bible® You will be hated by everyone because of My name. But the one who endures to the end will be delivered. English Standard Version and you will be hated by all for my name's sake. But the one who endures to the end will be saved. J.P. Green's Literal Translation And you will be hated by all on account of My name, but the one enduring to the end shall be kept safe. 'Question: 'Does Matthew 10:22 mean a believer can lose his salvation? 'Answer: 'Those in the Arminian position who, believing that one can lose his salvation, believe Matt. 10:22 teaches that unless one endures to the end he forfeits his salvation... 'It is important to remember that the use of words like “save” and “salvation” must be understood in their context. “Saved” often does not mean saved from sin or saved in the sense of receiving eternal life. It may simply refer so some form of deliverance or survival. 'As one considers Matthew 10:22, it is vital to bear in mind the context which is Messianic and in keeping with the Old Testament calendar of events. Stanley Toussaint in Behold the King writes: '...In the similar context using similar words, Matthew 24:8-31 (especially 24:13), the future Great Tribulation and the Second Advent are in view. As there, it would seem clear that the “coming of the Son of man” is eschatological here also. In keeping with their expectations from the Old Testament, such would have been more readily understood by the disciples. 'The endurance, then, is physical survival. While many will be martyred, a few will make it to the end. Those who endure through the awful events of the tribulation will be alive or delivered by Messiah when he returns to earth. This is not a reference to eternal salvation from sin, but rather the deliverance of survivors at the end of the tribulation as stated in Romans 11:26, where the Deliverer will save the nation Israel from its persecutors. Many will not endure to the end in that they will be martyred for their faith as described in Revelation 7:9-17.' ____________________ www.bible.org |
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580 | "the one who endures..will be delivered" | Matt 24:13 | kalos | 169076 | ||
"the one who endures..will be delivered" "But the one who endures to the end will be delivered." Matthew 24:13 Holman Christian Standard Bible® Matthew 24:13 J.P. Green's Literal Translation "But the one who endures to the end, that one will be kept safe." 'the same shall be saved; 'with a temporal salvation, when Jerusalem, and the unbelieving inhabitants of it shall be destroyed: for those that believed in Christ, many of them, through persecution, were obliged to remove from thence; and others, by a voice from heaven, were bid to go out of it, as they did; and removed to Pella, a village a little beyond Jordan, and so were preserved from the general calamity; and also with an everlasting salvation, which is the case of all that persevere to the end, as all true believers in Christ will.' (Gill, John. "Commentary on Matthew 24:13". "The New John Gill Exposition of the Entire Bible". [www.studylight.org]) 'The salvation promised in Matthew 24:13 is salvation or deliverance from the persecution of the Beast. The one who endures until Christ returns will be saved from the Beast' (www.gotquestions.org/Olivet-discourse.html). |
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