Results 601 - 620 of 1928
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Results from: Notes Author: Reformer Joe Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
601 | "I make peace, and create evil" | Is 45:7 | Reformer Joe | 66156 | ||
You forgot the tragic exit music. --Joe! |
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602 | "I make peace, and create evil" | Is 45:7 | Reformer Joe | 66032 | ||
You wrote: 'Because if there was no evil there could be no good. Good and Evil depend on each other for their existence.' No they don't. You wrote: 'Without one the other would become "normal".' "Good" can be the norm (and in heaven, it is the norm). "Good" and "normal" are not mutually exclusive conditions. You wrote: 'Joe, with all that you know how is it that you can't see that God is above "GOOD".' Because the Bible explicitly says otherwise. 'God is limitless, and "GOOD" places a limit. Is there not anything higher than "GOOD"?' Ummm...holy? There is not good higher than God. You wrote: 'It won't matter how "good" you are or how much "good" you do, it can't equal God. "Good" is limited.' My good is limited, because of my tendency to rebel against God's goodness and my lack of omnipotence and eternality, and due to my finiteness. God is hindered by none of these. God is holy, absolutely unlimited in his moral goodness. --Joe! |
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603 | help with a group paper on nat.selection | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 66029 | ||
You wrote: "Examples of humans not nursing weak: ...Giving children up to adoption. If a child is born with cerebral palsy or a birth defect, it may end up on the list of children to adopt. If not, the parents may have a hard time finding enough money to pay for medications this child needs to stay alive." I would consider this as an example in many circumstances of doing what is best for the child. --Joe! |
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604 | Understanding The Bible | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 65910 | ||
You wrote: "Why do we need new versions?" Same reason we need any versions at all. Language changes. Why don't you read the Bible in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek? Why do Spanish speakers not read the KJV? Because it is hard/impossible for them to understand. Now why "modern" translations? Because the English language is significantly different than it was in 1611, and many of the words in the KJV are archaic and other words have different connotations. As with the translation of any document from one language to another, no translation can be said to be "perfect." And when you factor in the antiquity of the languages in which God inspired its authors to write, Bible translation becomes a discipline, not an exact science. "It has never failed me. It has fed my soul. I do have trouble understanding it at times, but the trouble is with me and not the translation." But the trouble is not necessarily with your moral condition but with the fact that you live in the 21st century and not the early 17th. --Joe! |
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605 | Question about the "ZERO" theory. | Dan 1:4 | Reformer Joe | 65906 | ||
"(Chaldeans:A person versed in occult learning)" Chaldeans: Another name for "Babylonians" --Joe! |
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606 | So...what is your theory? | Gen 1:26 | Reformer Joe | 65905 | ||
You wrote: "What are your thoughts about [Numbers 1-36], have you read it? Why did God use numbers? Why did God command Moses to number everyone?" God did not command Moses to assign everyone a number (as if Aaron were number 4571 or something silly like that). He had Moses take a CENSUS. All Americans (theoretically) participated in a census two years ago. Can you tell me which number you are? --Joe! |
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607 | "I make peace, and create evil" | Is 45:7 | Reformer Joe | 65903 | ||
You wrote: 'I'm sorry but I'm gonna need to disagree with you. The only thing that has always existed is God himself, there is no eternal existence of "moral good" and "moral evil".' Evil didn't exist, but since evil/sin by definition is that which is contrary to God's law and God's holiness, moral good did exist. God's perfection never depended on there being an "opposite force" present. You wrote: 'Since God is the only thing that is eternal then **ALL** "good" AND **ALL** "evil" came from him, by him, and the scripture says so.' Well, since God created all things, in a certain sense He is responsible for the existence of evil. However, what He created was good, but not immutably good. If something (or someone) God created morally upright chose to rebel against God's law of his/her own volition, that person is the author of that evil, not God. 'I'm sorry, but I don't think we can pick and choose the definitions that work best just because we don't want to believe them. I don't think it is fair to say "this isn't the interpretaion he ment".' No, but it is perfectly fair to look at what else God reveals about Himself in the rest of Scripture to see what this verse could possibly mean in the whole context. God being evil or being the immediate cause of something against his own nature doesn't match up with the rest of the Bible. 'God is the pinnacle, he is above both "good" and "evil", and he is neither.' No. You who are of purer eyes than to see evil and cannot look at wrong, why do you idly look at traitors and are silent when the wicked swallows up the man more righteous than he? --Habakkuk 1:13 The sinless Christ, God himself, had no sin. If Jesus were both good and evil, then he wouldn't have served as the sinless sacrifice for the sins of Christians. I could go on for hours from Scripture about how God's infinite holiness is an immutable characteristic of His nature. The Bible makes that absolutely clear, and this one verse from Isaiah simply does not fit if "ra" means imperfection in any sense of the word. 'He created both for a reason and I think it should be asked, why did God create "EVIL"?' The better question would be, "Why does He allow evil to exist?" --Joe! |
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608 | Worthy of Honor but not of Respect | Eph 5:33 | Reformer Joe | 65755 | ||
One thing that I think is being missed here is the role of the church in dealing with abusive situations. If a Christian wife is being abused by a husband who is also a professing believer, where is the church discipline? There should be elders to whom the man is accountable, so that when unrepentant sin is made known (and in such situations it should be made known, for the husband's sake and for the sake of the name of Jesus Christ), the leadership God has established in the communion of saints can restore the family. And while the wife is to be submissive to her husband, the civil government is also God's tool to punish evildoers as well (Romans 13:1-3). Submission of authority is never license to rebel against the Supreme Authority. The apostles violated the commands of the civil authority when it conflicted with their mandate from Jesus Christ, but they made it clear why they were doing so. Church members are under an obligation to disobey commands from their elders to sin, and a wife is obligated to repectfully disobey her husband when he wants her to sin. --Joe! |
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609 | Did Jesus suffer in hell when he died? | Luke 23:46 | Reformer Joe | 65753 | ||
After careful examination of the arguments on the Forum pro and con regarding the "Did Jesus suffer in hell?" question, I think that some things have been overlooked which point to the atonement being completed on the cross: 1. Jesus' final word on the cross was "Teleo"meaning "finished" or "paid-in-full." 2. There is no direct Scripture reference supporting at all that Jesus atoned for man's sins in hell. Even if he paid a visit there, there is nothing to suggest in Scripture that he went there as an object of God's wrath. 3. The most significant thing that has been missed in these discussions is the association all throughout the New Testament between Christ's body and our reconciliation with God. In other words, it is stated time and again that it is the power of Christ's BLOOD that cleanses us from unrighteousness. We even see that in the Eucharistic liturgy. We see Jesus making a sacramental connection between the bread and the cup, and His own body and blood. There is no such connection made between any alleged suffering in hell and the atonement made by Christ. All of the descriptions of reconciliation and regeneration are tied to his suffering in the flesh: "Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who reside as aliens, scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, by the sanctifying work of the Spirit, to obey Jesus Christ and be sprinkled with His blood: May grace and peace be yours in the fullest measure." --1 Peter 1:1-2 "but if we walk in the Light as He Himself is in the Light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus His Son cleanses us from all sin." --1 John 1:7 "knowing that you were not redeemed with perishable things like silver or gold from your futile way of life inherited from your forefathers, but with precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless, the blood of Christ." --1 Peter 1:18-19 4. Lastly, the Old Testament sacrifices that prefigured Jesus' atonement could not have been related to spiritual atonement in hell, since the animals do not have spirits like humans do. The atonement was centered around the physical death of the animal. Therefore, I find the evidence points to a completed atonement on the Cross. Yes, Jesus the man truly and really died, and on the cross he was forsaken by God and endured God's wrath, but there seems to be no biblical support for Jesus suffering for our sins in hell. --Joe! |
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610 | Son or son? Holy Spirit or holy spirit? | Gen 1:26 | Reformer Joe | 65512 | ||
You wrote: 'Let me ask you a question; Do you think that the God you know is the "EXACT" same God as anyone else knows? If your answer is "yes" then why all the discussion? If your answer is "No" then there God is different then yours.' Hank and I believe in the same God. We differ in a few respects on what He is like and how He operates, but that is a far cry from saying we believe in different Gods. The problem is not God being "different" for me and "different" for Hank. Our God is the same, but our problem is in our understanding of God. And by "our," I mean "Hank's." ;) --Joe! |
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611 | Son or son? Holy Spirit or holy spirit? | Gen 1:26 | Reformer Joe | 65511 | ||
You wrote: "I would recommend that you go to scripture first. Get a concordance and look up Father, Son, and Holy Spirit (Ghost) separately. Study on your own and develop an understanding OF YOUR OWN. Then read what other people say and compare." A question: What if I do what you have said, and develop an understanding OF MY OWN, then look at what other people have said, and find that we disagree? Who will be right, me or them? --joe! |
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612 | Son or son? Holy Spirit or holy spirit? | Gen 1:26 | Reformer Joe | 65510 | ||
Hey, just thought I would jump in! :) You wrote: 'Thanks for all of your help. I'm sorry but I see [Col.1:16] as: For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him. I see it as the "him" is in reference to [v.15]: Who is the *image* of the *invisible God*, the firstborn of every creature."' I am sorry, I am a little unclear on what you are saying here. Do you think that the "he" in Colossians 1:16 is Jesus or God the Father? The "he" is clearly Jesus Christ from verse 15 on. Jesus is: --the image of the invisible God --the "firstborn" (not literally born but the heir) of all creation --the one through whom all things were created (which rules him out as a created being...nothing can create itself; see John 1:3 for more support on that) --the firstborn from among the dead (our predecessor in the universal resurrection) --the one in whom the the Father pleased to have the fullness dwell --the head of the body, the church (Ephesians 4:15) and so on. All of these attributes refer to God the Son. You also wrote: '***NOTE****IMPORTANT**** The definition of begotten: [websters] "To cause to exist or occur; produce". ' The Greek word "monogenes" can also mean "one of a kind" or "unique." The church has historically upheld that, just as the prologue to John's gospel says, Jesus was God and with God in the beginning. You wrote: 'It appears as though you believe in Trinity as the Godhead. So let me ask you, if the Godhead is all seperate but equal Gods then why is it that Jesus refers to "my GOD" in [Mark 15:34]' The Trinity doctrines do not hold that there are three Gods. One God eternally existing in three distinct but united Persons. Jesus the Son was forsaken by the Father for the sake of paying the penalty for the sins of all those who have faith in Jesus. Jesus was temporarily forsaken, but that does not mean he ceased to exist. God cannot die; it is Jesus' human nature that perished on the cross. --Joe! |
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613 | DO WE KNOW EACH OTHER IN HEAVEN | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 64802 | ||
Why do you think we would not? --Joe! |
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614 | Are stars symbolic for something else? | Rev 6:13 | Reformer Joe | 64785 | ||
What about Jesus saying, "I am the light of the world." Is He a literal light? Both metaphor and simile are used in Scripture. --Joe! |
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615 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | Reformer Joe | 64435 | ||
"I have an advocate in my Lord Jesus Christ and I trust that his blood will cover those sins I commit and repent of as well as those I may commit and am ignorant of." Sounds an awful lot like what I believe. Except I believe that his blood HAS COVERED those sins. "For He rescued us from the domain of darkness, and transferred us to the kingdom of His beloved Son, in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins."--Colossians 1:13-14 He HAS RESCUED us and I HAVE BEEN TRANSFERRED. The action is done because I have redemption in Jesus Christ. He HAS BOUGHT me with his own blood (not put down a down payment), and as He said on the Cross, "It is finished." --Joe! |
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616 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | Reformer Joe | 64422 | ||
"If we are to do this for a repentant brother how much more will our Father in heaven do it for a repentant child?" And what if you fail to confess a sin? Even a small, tiny little itty-bitty one? --Joe! |
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617 | Jesus couldn't of gone up to heaven. | Luke 23:43 | Reformer Joe | 64421 | ||
I understand exactly what you are trying to say, Ed. I just disagree. I know that the gospel CAN be proclaimed (and in fact HAS been proclaimed in the past) without the agency of man. God in his sovereignty can do anything he pleases. However, I think that with the biblical model of the gospel being proclaimed solely by God, angels, or men, one cannot trust that there must be other ways that God has not mentioned. And that is where we will disagree. --Joe! |
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618 | Jesus couldn't of gone up to heaven. | Luke 23:43 | Reformer Joe | 64408 | ||
Why do you conclude that Luke 12:48 is referring to a non-Christian? --Joe! |
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619 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | Reformer Joe | 64407 | ||
"You quote a scripture (Romans 8:5-9) written by Paul. He is speaking to those who have already received salvation by responding to the gospel, in other words they are CHRISTIANS." Paul is speaking to Christians, but he is describing life without Christ. Notice that Romans 8:8 says that the people who cannot please God are those who are those in the flesh (i.e. non-Christians). Notice that the very next verse says that you are not in the flesh if he has the Spirit of Christ (i.e. is a Christian). "My point is there is only one body and that body is the church, the CHURCH OF CHRIST." Of which I am a part. "The only theology in the New Testament is that of the church of Christ. My goal is to learn the truth of this theology and spread it." Mine, too. " I agree with you that the Holy Spirit acts on hearts that are willing to receive the gospel of truth, but that action does not save a person, only obedience to the commandments of God, through Jesus, accomplish this." And do you obey all the commandments of God or not? Under a system of works/obedience, if you don't fulfill God's commandments perfectly, you go to hell. Good luck! --Joe! |
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620 | Joe, | Luke 23:43 | Reformer Joe | 64347 | ||
I could not answer where it physically IS with any certainty (I do suspect it to be oustide the universe in which we dwell), but I feel pretty confident to assert that there's not a lot of room for hell among the semi-solid mantle and liquid/solid core that lies underneath the crust of the planet on which we dwell. The earth is not hollow: http://pubs.usgs.gov/publications/text/inside.html In other words, the idea of hell being underground is something I hold to be borrowed from pagan mythology and not revealed in the Bible. --Joe! |
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