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| Subject: Could you please give some scriptural re |
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Bible Note: Hi, Jer... There is grammatical, historical, and traditional consensus in the interpretation of this idiom. Furthermore, Isaiah 1:18 has nothing whatever to do with Paul's statement in 2 Corinthians 12:2; even less so the thrust of his explanation to the Corinthians of Paul's apostleship. Consequently, in the absence of logic (for our God reveals Himself in the Word) and in the absence of consensus past and present (for our God reveals Himself in community), why don't we set this little bit of silliness aside? It diverts us from the point that Paul was making, just as it has done with the Mormons and the Jehovah Witnesses. There is an old aphorism that might be helpful here: When the plain sense makes perfect sense seek no other sense. In Him, Doc |
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