Bible Question:
Biblical prophecy - I want to understand how biblical prophecy has been fufilled. If a certain prophecy happens with the knowledge of it about to happen, then people will expect it to happen and will influence it. Where as if an event happens and the prophecy is found later on then it seems more valid as the prophecy wasnt influenced by previous knowlegde of it happening. In simpler terms : Person X says Event Y is going to happen People Z expect Event Y to happen Event Y happens because People Z influence Y happening It seems like the event has been influenced Where as if Y happens People Z witness it 100 years later People Z find book written by person X Then it seems more valid. |
Bible Answer: What if person X had actually written the book as the activity happened? One hundred years later, no one would know the difference. It may seem more believable, but it is hardly the most accurate. I would point out the birth and life of Jesus. There are literally hundreds of Old Testament prophesies concerning Christ's birth, life, ministry, death, and resurrection. The odds of all of the prophesies coming to pass in the same individual is astronomically small. There is no possible way that anyone could have influenced this. Furthermore, look at how many people missed it! The men who were the most well-versed in the Old Testament, the Pharisees, ended up crucifying the very man that the people of Israel had been looking for for hundreds of years. Even after Jesus' death and resurrection, some still looked for another Messiah. |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 4 | Author | ||
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2513 Kennon Avenue | ||
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MartiFans | ||
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DUDUTJ | ||
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Kurtee | ||
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fgravagna | ||
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Scooter | ||
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screem | ||
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mamayama | ||
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slippy88 | ||
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stjohn | ||
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Val | ||
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Faridah |