Bible Question:
Dear friends, Someone sent me a question I'd like help with. Topic? Practicing Homosexuality. Leviticus 18:22 clearly states it to be an abomination unto God. If so, he states mockingly..."Well, then God's Law also states in Leviticus 25:44 that he may posses slaves, both male and female, provided they are purchases from neighboring nations. He mockingly asks if this applies to people from Mexico, Canada, or both? You know where this is going... He also mockingly says, "I would like to sell my daughter into slavery, as sanctioned in Exodus 21:7. He mocklingly states, "I have a neighbor who insists on working on the Sabbath. Exodus clearly states he should be put to death. Am I morally obligated to kill him myself, or should I ask the police to do it?" You catch where this scoffer is going. What is a loving and theologically sound way that I can respond to him? Isn't the homosexual practice a violation of God's Law even under grace? What then about those other laws? I know Romans 8:2 and beyond talks about the fact that we are under grace now, but how can I answer this very clever unbeliever? |
Bible Answer: Diego, The truth of the matter is that somebody with this disposition will more than likely not listen no matter how well you answer him. This is even more true based on the answer to the question, which is quite easy to for scoffers to accuse us of merely picking and choosing what applies. However, because God is able to grant repentance and for the sake of giving you truth personally I will lay out for you the basis of the historical answer Christianity has given to this dilemma. I myself think this answer is biblically sound. The basis of the answer lies in the division of the law. The law was in three parts, though it is often given all mixed together. The three parts are moral, ceremonial, and civil. The civil law, which is what your friend brings up to mock you, was limited to how Israel was to govern their nation. These things can not be applied merely to individuals or the church. We argue that the civil laws no longer apply, simply because we are no longer a worldly nation. The civil law had to do with the priesthood, clensings, sabbaths, festivals, sacrifices and such. All these things were pictures of Christ and fulfilled by Christ. The ended upon the finished work of Christ in his death, ressurection, and ascension because what they pointed to had been fulfilled. See Colossians 2:16,17 for this. The moral law remains both now and forever as the standard of righteousness. See Matthew 5:17,18 for Jesus' claim that this aspect of the law shall never pass away. We know that is what part he was referring to by his exposition of the moral law that follows. Homosexuality and the laws regarding it fall within this abiding moral law. When scripture says we are no longer under the law if we are in Christ we must grasp two things. 1. It does not mean that we God defines as right and wrong has changed. The moral law remains. 2. It means that if we are in Christ, we are no longer accepted or condemned based upon our keeping of that law. For example. Just because I am no longer going to heaven or hell based upon whether or not I resist coveting, does not mean that I now have permission to covet. I hope this helps. In Christ, Beja |