Subject: dreams and visions not scriptural? |
Bible Note: Hello Elder, Heb 1:1-2 "God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son,..." So, "God is not done speaking to man, and His Word to us is continuous". Please explain this! How is it incorrect to say "that because we have the Bible God no longer uses dreams and visions to communicate to His children "? Can you please demonstrate from scripture anything that supports your contention? Just because you say this doesn't make it true! Simply because we see dreams and visions in scriture does not at all imply that they are for all people at all times. What you are positing, is again making the Word of God at worst irrelevant, and at best secondary! Do we not belive that God can (and has) communicated to us soley through His Word? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |