Bible Question (short): "By the power vested in me" |
Question (full): I was taught that marriage was instituted by God. If that is so, then why must the preacher add the following words to the marriage rites; "By the power vested in me by the state of ______________ (fill in the blank), I now pronounce you man and wife." If preachers need to be vested by the state with certain powers to officially sanction marriage, then isn't the state violating it's own principles of "separation of church and state", by interferring with religion? Here is what our Bill of Rights states: In the 1st Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, the wording is clear, that; "Congress, shall make no law respecting the establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof." It seems that government has become entangled in religion by violationg the establishment clause in this 1st Amendment, because they have said that the church and preachers need to be vested with power from the state to legally perform weddings. What think ye? New Creature |
Up | Down View Branch | ID# 104996 | ||
Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 2 | Author | ||
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joyous4U | ||
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mplsfitter539 | ||
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New Creature | ||
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EdB | ||
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sickhead | ||
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sickhead | ||
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sickhead | ||
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sickhead | ||
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sickhead | ||
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sickhead | ||
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sickhead |