Subject: When Was Godhead Divided? |
Bible Note: Hi Jeff, In giving form to an answer to hoaryhead's question I shoulda, coulda, woulda said something like this: Ephesians 4:10 expresses the bottom line for me. The One who descended (and is vindicated in the Spirit, 1 Timothy 3:16) is the same One who is in the heavens, the One who fills all things. 1) My rationale for capitalizing Man in Philippians 2:8 is not unlike the NASB and the NKJ. There are many places that they capitalize "Man" when speaking of Christ; with the NKJ capitalizing in more cases than the NASB. I believe that they could be more consistent and capitalize the word here as well. 2) For verse 7, I chose to count only one pronoun of Deity as do the NASB and the NKJ even though the idea is inferred of "laying aside (h)His priviledges". He made Himself of no reputation or He laid aside His priveledges, but we express the thought with one pronoun, "but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant..." 2) For choosing "Man" for verse 8, my rationale is as I stated before, that He can not humble Himself any further, if he is thought of as a man. The passage tells us already that (h)He existed in the form of God but did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, verse 6. 3) Since Christ Jesus existed in the form of God, He should be found in appearance as a Man. We should have the attitude as men to humble ourselves also. But I am a man and He is a Man, and we humble ourselves being of the same attitude. I hope that helps. I appreciate your jumping in here. From the heart, Ray |