Bible Question:
When Was the Godhead Divided? "who being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, but made Himself of no reputation ... coming in the likeness of men" - Phil 2.6-7. Compare: Immanuel (God with us) - Matt 1.23; "One Lord, One God" - Eph 4.5-6. When did this happen? hoaryhead |
Bible Answer: Hi hoaryhead, Thank you for those Scriptures to compare. It is wonderful that our God came to earth in appearance as a Man, who is our Savior, the Christ who gives gifts to men, and also He who fills all things. 1) Philippians 2:6, NKJ, "who being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, 7 but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men." I interpret the next verse differently from others in that I capitalize Man in verse 8. If (h)He were just a man, He could not humble Himself any further than that. So I interpret Philippians 2:8 as saying, "And being found in appearance as a (Man), He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." 2) Matthew 1:21, "And she will bear a Son; and you shall call His/ name Jesus, for it is He who will save (His) people from their sins." Philippians 2:11--Matthew 1:25. Jesus Christ is (Lord) and His name is (Jesus), even God with us. 3) Ephesians 4:5, "one Lord/, one faith, one baptism, 6 one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all. 7 But to each one of us grace is given according to the measure of (Christ's) gift." Ephesians 4:10, "But He/ who descended is Himself also He who ascended far above all the heavens, that (He) might fill all things." The slashes and the parentheses here are mine for comparisons That is the way I see it for what it is worth. From the heart, Ray |