Bible Question:
If God thought it important enough for this verse 1 Corinthians 15:29 to be noted in the bible, why is it that no christian churches (except the mormons) as far as I know, practice this? And if it was done by "early christians" why did it stop? |
Bible Answer: Kaatje: We have to look at this verse within the context of the chapter. In chapter Paul is presenting the importance of the resurrection of Christ. He also points out the other side of the arguement which is the hopelessness which is found if Christ is not raised and if the dead rise not. Some writers have suggested that in Corinth, there were professing believers who did not believe in resurrection and yet they were practising the ritual of vicarious baptism or baptism for the dead. In other words one of the living would be baptised for one who had died unbaptised. Paul in v. 29 is not condoning this practice, but is pointing out their faulty thinking: First of all they deny the resurrection and then they baptise for the dead. "If the dead rise not at all, why are they then baptized for them" is another way of putting v. 29. The reason this practice is not in the church today is that such a practice is not mentioned before or after this verse. Secondly, the Bible clearly teaches that after death our eternal destiny is fixed. In Luke 16:19-31 Jesus shows us this truth. Again Jesus warned the people "If you die in your sins were I am you cannot come" The idea that a living person can somehow help a dead person by being baptised contradicts the gospel of Christ. Christ is the only one who takes the sinners place and makes him right with God. I am reminded of a psalm which reinforces this truth "None of them can by any means redeem his brother, nor give to God a ransom for him" Psalm 49:7 Hope this helps Robert |