Bible Question: DOES THE REFRENCE TO BAPTISIM OF THE DEAD IN ICOR15:29 MEAN THAT WE CAN BE BAPTIZED ON BEHALF OF OUR DEAD LOVED ONES. |
Bible Answer: Absolutely not, it was a question for us to answer logically asked by the apostle Paul. To baptise means to dunk deep in water. If you don't rise again out of that water what purpose would that accomplish? That's the conclusion I think is being asked of the reader. I know I'm being asked a question not being told a statement or fact. Look at the context of the verse also. We know there is a possibility of this being done as a practice by a group of people, a church congregation, etc..., but the question requires us to come up with an acceptable answer. In other words ask yourself questions, to see if the practice equals truth, or false doctrine. It is required of us. 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. |