Subject: HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID |
Bible Note: Hi, Debbie; I have a gift for sowing confusion - just ask my kids. The whole story is in Isaiah 7. Ahaz (king of Judah) was under attack from King Rezin of Aram and Pekah, king of Israel. This made Ahaz nervous. Speaking through Isaiah, God told him to relax, that the attack would fail, but "If you do not stand firm in your faith, you will not stand at all." (v.9). God then invited Ahaz to ask him for a sign. But Ahaz declined, saying "I will not ask; I will not put the LORD to the test." (v.12) "Then Isaiah said, 'Hear now, you house of David! Is it not enough to try the patience of men? Will you try the patience of my God also? Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign'". (v.13-14) The sign was the one Matthew referred to: "The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel. He will eat curds and honey when he knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right. But before the boy knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right, the land of the two kings you dread will be laid waste." (v.14-16) For the boy Immanuel to be a sign to Ahaz that Judah would stand against Rezin and Pekah, he would have to be born and known to Ahaz before the two kings were defeated. So Immanuel was born, lived, and died long before Jesus was born. Mathew said, in effect, that while Isaiah's prophecy conerning Immanuel was fulfilled in the sense that a foretold event had already happened, Jesus' birth was a further fulfillment of it. The boy that Isaiah spoke of was named Immanuel because he was proof to Ahaz that God was with him in his fight. Jesus - also born of a virgin - was more entitled to the name Immanuel because he wasn't just a sign from God, he was God. You can't get any more "with us" than that. Hope this clears things up - or at least doesn't muddy them further. Peace and grace, Steve aka Indiana Jones |