Subject: HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID |
Bible Note: Hi, debbie; Not to speak for aften1, but this could possibly be a reference to Isaiah 7:10-16: "The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel." (v. 14). But this is not a reference to Jesus; this virgin birth was a sign intended for King Ahaz to see in his lifetime. The fact that Matthew refers to Isaiah's prophecy in 1:22-23 can be confusing: "All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: 'The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel'--which means, 'God with us.'" A Professor of New Testament whom I respect has said that "fulfillment" of a prophecy has two possible meanings. We usually think of it as meaning that an event foretold by a prophet has taken place. But "fulfillment" can also mean the perfection or purest example of a prophecy. With this reference to Isaiah, Matthew is saying that there was a virgin birth before, but this one is the purest, most perfect example of a virgin birth. This child named Jesus can also be called Immanuel because he is more than just an illustration of "God with us" - a sign from God to Ahaz - he is the embodiment of "God with us"; he is God and he is with us. Hope this helpful, or interesting, or something. ;-) Peace and grace, Steve aka Indiana Jones |