Subject: Unbaptized children |
Bible Note: The scripture references you gave is strong evidence that water baptism is NOT required for salvation, NOT support that water baptism is a requirement. Eph 4:5 declares one baptism as you have quoted. However, Heb 6:2 says the doctrine of BAPTISMS not baptism, right? Look at Mat3:11b, Mat20:22-23, Mar1:8b, Mar10:38-39, Luk3:16b, Luk12:50, Acts1:5b, and Acts11:16b. Can we agree that none of these references mean water baptism? So, can we agree that the Word declares more than 1 baptism, as far as number goes? So, what does "one baptism" mean in Eph 4:5? Since the Word declares more than one baptism, as far as number, the "one" here must mean the one baptism that brings salvation. Not the baptism into the body of Christ PLUS water baptism, but baptism into the body of Christ ALONE (1Cor12:13). You listed Acts 8:36-38. This is one of the strongest passages I know that shows that salvation and water baptism are 2 different acts, and that salvation is required for water baptism, but water baptism is not required for salvation. In verse 36 the eunuch asks, "What hinders me from being baptized?" Philip answer what would have prevented him from being baptized in verse 37. Then Philip said, "If you believe with all your heart, you may." The eunuch responds with, "I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God." This lines up with Rom10:9. Verse 38, Philip baptizes him. Water baptism here could not be the "one baptism" unto salvation, because according to verse 37, salvation had already occurred. Jesus Saves! retxar |