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NASB | Revelation 21:27 and nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb's book of life. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Revelation 21:27 and nothing that defiles or profanes or is unwashed will ever enter it, nor anyone who practices abominations [detestable, morally repugnant things] and lying, but only those [will be admitted] whose names have been written in the Lamb's Book of Life. [Dan 12:1] |
Bible Question:
Hey Tim, I wanted to ask some questions about the Arminian view. I will be focusing my comments on Romans 8:29-30. I want to clarify some definitions according to this view: Foreknowledge (v29) - GOD knowing before hand who would be justified before Him through accepting Jesus Christ (believer’s acceptance) and who would be damned based upon their rejection of Jesus Christ. Correct? Called (v30) - Divine Call unto Salvation? (Strong’s #2564) I know that the word is used in Matthew 22:14 as ‘invited,’ but in Paul’s writing, how is this word defined? Do you believe this ‘call’ is revocable, as used in 8:29-30? I have always been bent toward freewill, and I probably always will be, but what I don’t understand is, if GOD foreknew who would choose Him of their own freewill, why did He ‘call’(2564) them(us)? And, if #2564 as Paul uses it is a ‘Divine Call’ unto Salvation, wouldn’t the fact that GOD ‘called’ all He foreknew still lead us to the conclusion of Eternal Security? GOD foreknows who will remain faithful to the end, but He only ‘calls’ those who do finish the course. So, wouldn’t the folks who fall short not be ‘Genuine Christians’ because they were never ‘called’ by GOD? As I’ve mentioned before, I am an Election/Responsibility person. As I understand it, this view fully recognizes man’s responsibility considering the unlimited atonement of Christ and the clear teaching that ‘whosoever will’ can be saved. This view completely rejects the idea of GOD predetermining some to hell, if someone goes to hell s/he holds the blame. However, this view also recognizes the Sovereignty of GOD in the Election of the saints (personal and corporate). How these two truths come together is beyond our realm of comprehension, but they are both clearly taught in Scripture (according to this view:-). |
Bible Answer: Part II (Cont.) Greetings Charis: I will now try to address your specific questions, though time and space will limit me from being as specific as I would like. 1) Foreknowledge: I believe that Arminians and Calvinists have both been guilty of reading a lot into words that simply isn't there. This is one of those cases. I do not believe (as many Arminians do) that God elects individuals unconditionally based upon their foreseen faith. The word 'foreknew' is only used by Paul twice (Romans 8:29 and 11:2. The word is only used five times in the entire New Testament (the other three occurances being: Acts 26:5, 1 Peter 1:20, and 2 Peter 3:17. I am a firm believer in allowing the Bible to define terms, not our theology. One should look at how a word is used in all of Scripture. One should look at how a word is used by a particular author in all of his writings. Finally, one should look at how a word is used in the book in question. The last being the most important for interpreting a word in it's context. With this in mind, how does Paul use the word 'forknew'. Romans 11:2 gives us the definiton of the word. Romans 11:1-2a says, "I ask then: Did God reject his people? By no means! I am an Israelite myself, a descendant of Abraham, from the tribe of Benjamin. 2 God did not reject his people, whom he foreknew...." There isn't any doubt in my mind that Paul uses this term as a sort of title for Israel. Therefore, he most likely uses it in the same way in Rom. 8:2. Does the evidence support this? Consider the following: a) Within ten verses of Rom. 8:29, Paul begins his discussion of the status of Israel in Romans 9-11. b) Within seven verses of Rom. 8:29, Pauls quotes a Psalm (44), which deals with God's perceived rejection of Israel. Therefore, my understanding of Rom. 8:28-39 is not that God is teaching the unconditional election (through either Divine fiat or foreknowlede) of individuals to salvation, but that Paul is letting Israel (the people whom God foreknew) know that nothing can seperate them from the love of God. (Of course, the message would also be just as significant for all of those who love God.) 2) Called: Your second word is another good example of where I believe many have added meanings that simply are not there. Arminians did it with 'foreknew', and Calvinists have done it with 'called'. There simply is not a single verse in the entire New Testament where 'called' is used in the sense of an irresistable call to salvation. The word is used in several ways. a) To name someone, as in Mt. 1:21. b) To physically call out to someone. c) And, by implication, to invite as in Mt. 22:3-14. Paul uses the word (# 2564) 7 times in Romans: Romans 4:17, 8:30, 9:7, 11, 24, 25, 26. Romans 4:17 seems to be a different context and usage, but the rest all are in the same context. How then does Paul use this word? Each occurances is used within a context which deals with the Spiritual Israel. Paul make the argument in Romans 9 that Israel is made up of all those who have responded in faith to God's call, not just those who are born of Abraham. Romans 9:7 says, "Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called." Romans 9:24 includes both Jews and Gentiles in the number. This is a direct answer to God's promise in the Old Testament according to Rom. 9:25-26. This is getting long, so will close with this summary. In my view, the Elect refers primarily to Christ and then secondarily to those who are in Christ. The promises of Rom. 8:29-30, refer primarily to Israel, but secondarily to all those who respond to God's call. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |