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NASB | James 1:13 Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | James 1:13 Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God" [for temptation does not originate from God, but from our own flaws]; for God cannot be tempted by [what is] evil, and He Himself tempts no one. |
Bible Question (short): 1. logic? 2. differences with Eng. tr.? |
Question (full): Hello Doc, If I may sir, I have two questions from your post. If I sound like "I am not getting it," I guess it is because I'm not. Please be patient with me. Question 1: How does your logic work here? You wrote that: 1. We are commanded not to tempt God. 2. Christ was tempted. Christ is God. Therefore, God was tempted. and then you say: "These conclusions make it impossible for your friend's translation to stand." But it sounds to me like your points 1 and 2 are *exactly* what my friend is trying to get this verse to say (that is, that we are being commanded not to tempt or test God: "God ought not to be tempted")! I don't think there is anything wrong with the statement biblically or theologically. I just am questioning whether it stands up textually in this verse. Question 2: Are you suggesting that textually this verse is not saying that God is untemptable (sorry for the double-negative), but rather that God cannot be tempted to the point of giving into sin? That seemed to be the point being emphasized by the literal translation that you offered for this verse, especially in light of your acknowledgment that God can be tempted. And if that is true (if that is what you see being said and emphasized in the text of this verse), then why do you suppose that none of the major English translations have translated it that way? They all seem to emphasize that God is untemptable. I hope I am not testing your patience with my questions. I'm just trying to understand. I appreciate you taking the time to discuss this with me. |