John

SCROLL TO BOTTOM FOR CONTENT THREADS.

Prior Book \| Prior Chapter \| Prior Verse \| Next Verse \| Next Chapter \| Next Book \| Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015
NASB	John 4:38 "I sent you to reap that for which you have not labored; others have labored and you have entered into their labor."
AMPLIFIED 2015	John 4:38 "I sent you to reap [a crop] for which you have not worked. Others have worked and you have been privileged to reap the results of their work."

SCROLL TO BOTTOM FOR CONTENT THREADS.

Bible Question (short): Who are the sowers? - II

Question (full): Thank you, Nicodemus and Steve, for your thoughtful and thought-provoking answers to my question. I think I'm in basic agreement with a lot of what both of you say, but there are some observations I'd like to point out, as well as uncertainty as to which of several options Jesus is referring to. Please understand that my intention is to get at the truth with your help. (For me, this includes testing the specific ideas that you offer or quote on this question; I am certainly not testing or questioning your intelligence, knowledge or spirituality in any way.)

1) Nicodemus' quotation from the Nelson NKJV Study Bible seems a little out of context. The study Bible says that John the Baptist and his followers had been in Judea, but this scene did not take place in Judea; it took place in Samaria -- beside a well where Jesus was talking with the Samaritan woman whom He had met there. If there was further explanation (in the longer Nelson account) indicating Jesus may have been referring to Jesus' future sending out of His disciples into Judea, it may be plausible, but the immediate context makes it odd for the study Bible to refer specifically to Judea.

2) Nicodemus quote from the Zondervan NASB Study Bible seems more logical in context. Perhaps John's disciples had by this time gone to the Samaritans as well; is there any indication that John's disciples may have reached them yet? Paul later (quite a bit later) ran into "disciples" as far away as Ephesus who had been thus prepared by a follower of John's teaching and baptism (apparently Apollos prior to his correction by Priscilla) - see Acts 19:1ff. Another logical possibility that appears to fit the context well is the availability and distribution of the teachings of all prophets in general concluding with John and his witnesses.

3) Steve Butler also suggests Jesus (alone) as the "others" referred to. This appears unreasonable given the use of the plural form "others" by Jesus. Jesus and the woman together MIGHT possibly be the "others" -- but this is a sequential message, not a message being proclaimed to them by multiple speakers, so it still seems questionable. Of course, Jesus and-or the Samaritan woman may be a PART of the "others" referred to by Jesus, but it would seem to me that there should be "others" as well.

Can Nicodems, Steve, or others offer further input or direction to this. I really don't have a final answer for myself, but it is part of something I've been considering.