Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | Matthew 9:3 And some of the scribes said to themselves, "This fellow blasphemes." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 9:3 And some of the scribes said to themselves, "This man blasphemes [by claiming the rights and prerogatives of God]!" |
Bible Question:
I have been considering today a verse which has a pronoun (or the implied Greek possibility of a pronoun) that involves the Deity of Christ. It involves our consideration of whether Jesus can "see their faith" and "know their thoughts". It involves whether we "may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins." Matthew 9:3, King James, "And, behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This man blasphemeth." [man blasphemeth is in italics]. Matthew 9:3, NASB, "And some of the scribes said to themselves, "This fellow blasphemes." [fellow is in italics]. Matthew 9:3, Amplified, "And behold, some of the scribes said to themselves, This man blasphemes [He claims the rights...]" Matthew 9:3, NKJ, "And at once some of the scribes said within themselves, "This Man blasphemes!" This is a question of capitalization of Scriptures. I have my own thoughts, but I would like you all to think about it first. Which do you "go with?" KJ, "This man blasphemeth." NASB, "This ...blasphemes." Amplified, "This man blasphemes [He claims the rights...] or NKJ, "This Man blasphemes." Which is most accurate? Any other suggestions of renderings? From the heart, Ray |
Bible Answer: Dear Ray, It is a real honor to reply to your question, being such a newcomer myself. I have found two more translations that I found to be of interest: Matthew 9:3 And lo, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This one doth speak evil. "Young's Literal Translation" And behold, certain of the scribes said to themselves, This [man]blasphemes. "Darby Translation" I have been told that the KJV is the most accurate, and after finding numerous "errors" in the NIV, I have been inclined to agree. these two translations I sent to you are very close to the KJV. I have been told, that the italics mean that the word is not in the original Scriptures, but was added by the translater for clarification purposes. So, why does the KJV have the words man blasphemeth in italics while the NASB and DARBY, among others, have only man or fellow italicized? YLT would not, of course have ANY italics. I agree with your ideas on capitalization, and do not feel right when reading a book that does not capitalize He or Him, when referring to our Lord. But how close does that apply here? The scribes were not referring to God, but in their eyes at least, just a "fellow" making outlandish claims. In this instance I would excuse the scribes from their non-use of capitals, but when I am referring to our Lord, I will continue to capitalize. In His Service, Tim |