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NASB | Matthew 19:5 and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 19:5 and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND SHALL BE JOINED INSEPARABLY TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? [Gen 1:27; 2:24; Mark 10:7] |
Subject: Men had multiple wives in the old test. |
Bible Note: Personally, while the sanctioning of polygamy does not sit right with me in my gut, I don't see anything in the Old testament that condemns it. The worshipping of idols, breaking the sabbath, dishonoring parents, lying, stealing, coveting, adultery, rape, incest and murder are all clearly condemned in Old testament, but I see nothing that condemns polygamy. In fact, David who was considered a man of God had multiple wives. If polygamy was a sin how can David be seen by God as righteous? The account of Bathsheba is condemned as adultery, not because she was taken as his number whatever wife, but because she was another man's wife. Polygamy was a socially accepted norm in those days, did God just tolerate it and overlook it? It doesn't seem characteristic of God to over look a sin just because it is a cultural norm. I don't understand when and why this shift from polygamy (OT) to monogamy (NT) occured. I'm stumped. |