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NASB | Leviticus 5:2 'Or if a person touches any unclean thing, whether a carcass of an unclean beast or the carcass of unclean cattle or a carcass of unclean swarming things, though it is hidden from him and he is unclean, then he will be guilty. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Leviticus 5:2 'Or if someone touches any [ceremonially] unclean thing--whether the carcass of an unclean wild animal or the carcass of an unclean domestic animal or the carcass of unclean creeping things--even if he is unaware of it, he has become unclean, and he will be guilty. |
Subject: unclean is a sin? or not? |
Bible Note: Hi Doc, I think Numbers 19 holds the appropriate references for this situation. One thing, though, perhaps you might tell me what you think. I have always considered the little girl in Mark 5 to have been truly dead. But the Bible doesn't actually record her has being in fact dead, at least as far as I can see. There are 3 people considered to be raised from the dead by Jesus during His earthly ministry, the widow of Nain's son, Lazarus, and this little girl. The widow's son is declared dead, (Luke 7:12) "Now when he came nigh to the gate of the city, behold, there was a dead man carried out, the only son of his mother, and she was a widow: and much people of the city was with her." Jesus touched his bier, and he returned to life. This is cut and dried. Lazarus, in the same way, is declared both by Jesus and in the narative to be dead. (John 11:14) "Then said Jesus unto them plainly, Lazarus is dead." (Joh 11:44) "And he that was dead came forth, bound hand and foot with graveclothes: and his face was bound about with a napkin. Jesus saith unto them, Loose him, and let him go." Regarding Jairus' daughter, the text says that those there were "knowing she was dead", but the narrative does not come out and say she was specifically dead. In fact, Jesus says, "Weep not; she is not dead, but sleepeth." (Luke 8:52) Now, this is one of those verses that is customarily taken in the sense of "He said that, but that's not what He meant", and I wonder if that is actually what we should do? The reason I wonder about this is that the ones that the Bible says plainly that they were dead, Jesus didn't touch. The one He touched He said was not dead. I'm not sure that this even affects the overall question of Jesus becoming unclean, because there is still the matter of the woman with the issue of blood who touched Jesus. That is, if her touching Him is to be considered the same as if He touched her, because that is the way the Law is written: Lev 15:19 "And if a woman have an issue, and her issue in her flesh be blood, she shall be put apart seven days: and whosoever toucheth her shall be unclean until the even." Then there is one other aspect of this that occurs to me, as I am currently studying in Matthew 12, where Jesus demonstrates that it is lawful to break the Sabbath in case of neccessity, so also perhaps the healings and resurrections would supercede the ceremonial laws of uncleaness. Are there any other instances you can think of where Jesus might have been made unclean? Love in Christ, Mark |