Subject: Us or them, for now or dead with Apostle |
Bible Note: 3 How does the greek grammar go against the face value of our forgiving sins of another. In my church when someone comes to give their life to Jesus the say "The Sinners Prayer." We tell them their sins are forgiven. God forgives sin only Him. NO DOUBT. But Jesus as a man (Phil 2:7) filled with the power of the Holy Spirit (Luke 4:1,14) repeatedly said "Your sins are forgiven" This is the phrase that got him into trouble with the religous leaders more than anything else He said. If I am "in Him" isn't it Him who lives not I. Cant He, through me, forgive sins like He said in the gospels. He knew God is the one who forgives sin just like I know and all believers know yet He said, Matt. 9:6 (NIV) "But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins.” Then he said to the paralytic, “Get up, take your mat and go home.” Again: Mark 2:5 (NIV) 5When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralytic, “Son, your sins are forgiven.” As I understand it, and maybe I'm wrong, if I use the name of Jesus I have the authority Jesus has given us. I also know that all scripture must be taken together. For someone to have there sins forgiven they must confess them and He is quick to forgive them. It could never be just me. It must be from a repentant heart and God. If you saw a fellow human sinking in the sands of despair and seeng that they have cried out to God would you not tell them their sins are forgiven and wouldn't it be true. |