Bible Question:
Matt 5:27-28 Mark 10:10-12 In these verses it specifically addresses the mans right to divorce a woman under the grounds of adultery, but it does not specifically say a woman can divorce her husband. Is a woman biblically allowed the right to divorce a man under these grounds (porn as adultery) or does she have to seperate and wait for her husband to divorce her? |
Bible Answer: Hello bandaid The question of weather or not a woman can get a devorce from her husband on the biblical grounds of adultry or does she have to wait for him to get it? If you are looking for the Biblical grounds then the woman would have to commit adultry for her husband to be able to devorce her. In either case her devorcing him or him devorcing her. The point that has been missed are why the grounds of Adultry are allowed at all We cant just look at the reason we are able to get a devorce. We also have to look at why God allowed us grounds for a devorce in the first place. Matthew 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. As we see from the scripture it is saying "Because of the hardness of your heart" Moses was speaking to the Jews - - - not to us. They were under the Law - - - we are not. Jesus told us to Forgive our debtors. Turn the other cheek 70 times 7 How far does 70 times 7 go when adultry is concerned? Mark 10:5 5--- And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept. 6--- But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female. 7--- For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife; 8--- And (they twain shall be one flesh:) (so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.) 9--- What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. So does not what Jesus taught in Mark 10 nullify for Christians what Moses said to the Jews? If God has joined a husband and wife into one flesh. Is it then possable to seperate them? By devorce? It should be that if a marriage took place in a Church. Sanctioned by a religion. That the only place a devorce could be attained would be from that Sanctioning body. People do not look at the "marrage vows" as a true "VOW" and this Vow is not to be taken lightly. A person getting a devorce will pay to the uttermost farthing. Blessings in Jesus KcabmI4 |