Subject: Explain Matthew 22: 34-46 |
Bible Note: Hi Edb, This is a passage that brings up my old question of whether we need to think of Jesus as "merely mortal man" as you wrote. Do our translations need to put Him in lower case at any time? Is it not confusing to do so? Why do you, Ed, call the Lord "him"? Do you need to know Him as divinity and also as a man with critics? The passage revolves around whose Son is He. I agree with and go with the NKJ in this passage. That version capitalizes Son throughout. All through our translations we hear the people calling out to the "Son of David", even in the King James version. I believe that the Pharisees and religious leaders should have been expecting "God with us" and not a "son". I go with the NKJ right now for John 7:46 also. "The officers answered, 'No man ever spoke like this Man!'" Is it any wonder that the people enjoyed listening to Him? 1) I also would like to express my belief that David "in the Spirit" spoke by inspiration as the NASB margin offers. So the "in the Holy Spirit" of Mark 12:36 I also see as by inspiration, or by holy spirit. From the heart, Ray |