Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | 2 Kings 16:6 At that time Rezin king of Aram recovered Elath for Aram, and cleared the Judeans out of Elath entirely; and the Arameans came to Elath and have lived there to this day. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 2 Kings 16:6 At that time Rezin king of Aram recovered Elath [in Edom] for Aram, and drove the Jews away from it. The Arameans came to Elath, and live there to this day. |
Bible Question (short): "Jews" only referring to Judah? |
Question (full): This verse is interesting... Notice carefully: The House of Judah now including the tribe of Benjamin under King Rehoboam of David's dynasty, was about to fight against the other ten tribes, headed by Ephraim and Manasseh, a different and separate nation. I am led to believe that the term "Jew" is merely a late name for "Judah." It applies to the one nation, or House of Judah only, never to the House of Israel. Am I correct? The first place in the entire Bible where the word "Jew" is used is in II Kings 16:6 (Amplified, KJV). Ahaz began to reign as king of Judah (verse 1). He sat on David's throne (verse 2). At this time, a man named Pekah was king of Israel. With King Rezin of Syria as an ally, this king of Israel came against Jerusalem in war, and besieged King Ahaz of Judah, but could not overcome him (verse 5). "At that time, Rezin, king of Syria "the ally of Israel, fighting with Israel, against Judah" recovered Elath to Syria and drove the Jews from Elath" (verse 6). The first place in the Bible where the word "Jew" is used, we find Israel at war against the Jews. Israel's ally, Syria, drove the Jews out of the town of Elath.. Does this prove that the Jews are a different nation altogether from the House of Israel? If so, then the Jews of today are Judah. They call their nation "Israel" today because they, too, descend from the patriarch Israel or Jacob. But remember that the "House of Israel"-the ten tribes that separated from Judah-does not mean Jew. So the lost ten tribes of Israel are not Jews? So the name "House of Israel," or "Samaria," or "Ephraim," is never referring to the Jews, but to the ten tribes of the House of Israel, who were at war against the Jews? For many generations Israel and Judah continued to practice idolatry. Israel was the only nation that kept it. Because they rejected this sign, I am led to believe that they were driven out, and lost their identity. (Ezekiel 20:10-24.) So just who are the descendants of these 10 other tribes? God promised Abraham: "And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the Lord appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect, and I will make my covenant between me and thee, and will multiply thee exceedingly... thou shalt be a father of many nations. Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have i made thee" (Gen. 17:1-5 KJV). Any suggestions? |
Down View Branch | ID# 13542 | ||
Questions and/or Subjects for 2 Kin 16:6 | Author | ||
|
Makarios | ||
|
Searcher56 | ||
|
Makarios |