Bible Question: I have always heard that "Angel of the Lord" used in the Old Testament as in Genesis 16:7 refers to the "pre-incarnate" Christ. As the message Sunday used a reference to that, I suddenly began thinking, "Why do they think that?" and began to do some study on it. I found out that some people believe it is because there is "first person" language used but sometimes prophets use "first person" language when giving prophecies so there must be other reasons. |
Bible Answer: If you read the accounts where the Angel of the Lord is mentioned you will discover that he is equated with God. He was thus not just an angel. He was 'God's other self'. See Gen 16.7 ff.21.17ff. 22.11 ff Sometimes he appears separate from God. At other times he speaks as God. But especially in Zechariah 1.12 the Angel actually speaks to God. Thus there is a peersonal distinction between them In the light of New Testament revelation that has caused the belief to grow up that He was the second person of the Triune Godhead. |