Bible Question:
Question 1 Gen 6:2-4 Why are they referring to "sons of God saw daughters of men?" also v4: "there were giants on the earth in those days and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men and they bore childern to them." Question 2 Gen 6:5-6 Please explain Gen 6:5-6 in context with Jer 29:11 and Ps 139? If God knew us even before we were born and He had a purpose, destination, hope and future for us...how can He be sorry that He made mankind? He knew man will be flesh and wicked. He knew Adam and Eve will disobey His voice. Hester |
Bible Answer: Genesis 6:1-6, unlike many far fetched theorists claim, doesn't refer to angels marrying humans in some kind of Dungeon and Dragons RPG knockoff. It's referring to the lineage of Seth and the Lineage of Cain intermarrying. One line, the line of Seth, apparently remained true to God's will. The line of Cain didn't. The Giants in the land reference is a time reference. As if I were to tell you something and say "The Rams football team was still in California ... ". By that, you would understand I was referring to a time prior to their move to St. Louis, MO. The same is true here. Moses is establishing a time reference that the readers of his day and culture would understand, but has now lost it's meaning. With that said, God was sorry that he remade man because they had grown wicked. The two separate lines had mingled and as such both were even more sinful than before. What the details are, we don't know, but it was significant enough for God to try and wash man away and start from scratch. The Sons of God reference universally identifies human believers, especially so in the New Testament. Those who were obeying God's desire. Something that is referred to as being "by man" or "of man" is often identifying something contrary to God's will. In the context of the first 6 chapters of Genesis, these would easily define Seth and Cain's family respectively. Quvmoh |