Subject: Where in Matthew is "one man" mentioned? |
Bible Note: Hi mommapbs, Thanks for your thoughts. I don't know if Acts 17:26 and 27 tell us that God causes man to seek Him. It is true that God made every nation of mankind to live on the face of the earth, and He gives to all life and breath and all things to seek Him. But does he "make" us or "cause" us to seek Him? I believe that there is enough in "all things" to cause us to seek Him. I hope that made sense. It makes sense to me. :)) re:"it makes more sense to keep the lower case...son of Joseph". The only Greek word of "son" is found in Luke 3:23, "being supposedly the son of Joseph, the [son] of Eli," and for the rest of the verses the ["son"] is understood. Thus, since we believe that Jesus is the Son of God, we must capitalize "Son" because it is the only choice to be capitalized. He is the Son of God and He is the Son of Joseph. I haven't convinced anyone yet that I know of, but that makes sense to me. There is a difference in outlook between the New King James and the NASB in this regard. Look at Matthew 22:42 for instance. Matthew 22:42, NASB, "What do you think about the Christ, whose son is He?" They said to Him, "[The son] of David." Matthew 22:42, NKJ, "saying, "What do you think about the Christ? Whose Son is He?" They said to Him, "[The Son] of David." So I go with the NKJ in this regard. And I go further: if we know Jesus as the Son of David, then we can know Him as the Son of Joseph and the Son of Abraham. That's the sense that He is David's Son. He is David's Lord. Matthew 22:45, NKJ, "If David then calls Him, 'Lord', how is He his Son?" 46 And no one was able to answer Him a word, nor from that day on did anyone dare question Him anymore." From the heart, Ray |