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|NASB||Genesis 4:1 Now the man had relations with his wife Eve, and she conceived and gave birth to Cain, and she said, "I have gotten a manchild with the help of the LORD."|
|Genesis 4:1 Now the man Adam knew Eve as his wife, and she conceived and gave birth to Cain, and she said, "I have obtained a man (baby boy, son) with the help of the LORD."|
|Bible Question (short): Significance of wording in Genesis|
Question (full): Greeting everyone,
First, let me state that I have been reading this forum for about a month now, and have enjoyed the answers provided from the 'old-timers' as well as the 'occasional' posters. I've learned many wonderful things from the understanding that many of you have been blessed with. That being said, my question involves the specific wording used in the early chapters of Genesis. I have searched, and read almost every post to see if these questions have been addressed, and I couldn't find answers there, so I am asking them here. If these have been previously addressed, if you could give me the post numbers, I'll gladly look them up and spare excessive posts on the topic.
From what I've come to realize is that: 1) The Bible is the Word of God, 2) God doesn't lie or change, 3) The Bible is the Truth. So, with that as the guideline, the specific wording must have some importance, and has been placed there as part of the Truth, and not just filler. Here are a couple of examples that I've been looking at in Genesis and was wondering if anyone could give me some insight, or a place to research this questions.
One example of this is Gen4:1 "And the man knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man with the help of Jehovah." Gen 4:17 "And Cain knew his wife; and she conceived, and bare Enoch" and finally Gen 4:25 "And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth.". But the wording of Gen 4:2 "And again she bare his brother Abel." is different. Since this is the Word of God, wouldn't there be some significance to this difference? I'm not looking to find fault in the Word, I'm looking for the Truth of the Word. And I'm not trying to run this off in a 'serpent seed' direction either, but could Cain and Abel have actually been twins? If they weren't twins, wouldn't it had been worded the same way as both the previous birth of Cain, and the later births of Seth and Enoch? If they hadn't been twins, wouldn't Cain, as the older sibling, already have made at least one offering to God earlier in his life than when it's mentioned in Gen 4:3-4 of his and Abel's offerings?
Another example is why are Cain's generations mentioned? From what I've read, it seems that the seed-line follows the first born male (except for Noah's son Shem) but until Noah's sons, the only generations noted are those of the seed-line, with the exception of Cain? If Cain and his descendants were all killed in the flood, what is the significance of telling us who his first-born children were, and why has the Word of God chosen to share that with us?