|Bible Question (short): Deut 22:29, Rapist to marry victim?|
Question (full): This passage according to some translation states that if a man (unmarried) rapes a virgin, he is forced to marry her and pay the bride price.
There are HUGE issues with this translation. Rape is a violent crime against the woman. Other laws in the Torah protect the woman from rape.
I understood this text, in context of both the chapter and the over all Mosaic Law, to be "forcibly taken from her father" and consensual relations between the man and virgin are in view. Within the culture, the man who take a virgin in this manner is in effect taking from the father, who, if the girl is not wed to this man, is not violated and very unlikely to be wed to any man. This leaves both the father (and later the brothers) responsible for her. It also removes her from being able to bare children who would one day honor her in her old age.
It is, to me, obvious that a violent act of rape would not be punished by forcing the victim to marry the criminal.
If Jesus is the embodiment of the Law in flesh, then can we see Jesus in this light? NO. We see Jesus as the most woman appreciating and caring person in the scriptures. That, I understand, is because the Law was the same, if applied and understood by adequate and righteous judges (Elders).
Please...PLEASE...someone offer something on this passage, as it is quite disturbing as translated in certain English Bibles.