Bible Question (short): Are God's laws applicable to everyone? |
Question (full): Are God's laws applicable to everyone or only to believers? Our discsssion group has been debating this issue for some time. I say they apply to all regardless while my pastor friend disagrees. I believe there is a difference between "applicablility" and "accountability". For example, two men commit the same sin (marry a divorced woman with a living ex - Mathew 19:9 and 5:32). One man does so "out of ignorance" while the other does so with "full knowledge" that they were doing wrong. The man who committed the sin "out of ignorance" according to the Bible would not be held accountable since he "did not know". On the other hand, the individual who committed the sin "knowing it was wrong" would be held accountable by God. Although both received different treatments, they both committed the same offense and broke the same law. In 1 Cor 7:12-15, Paul is addressing "mixed marriages" - that is a marriage between a "believer" and an "unbeliever". So what does Paul mean when he says that the remaining spouse is "no longer under bondage". It is my contention that Jesus' command that divorce only occur for the "cause of fornication" applies to both "believers" and "unbelievers" alike. And that the "divorced" wife, weather a "believer" or "unbeliever" is still required to adhere to 1 Cor 7:10-11 - "... remain single or reconcile ....". Therefore "no longer under bondage" cannot imply a violation of 1 Cor 7:10-11. |