Results 81 - 100 of 110
|
||||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: jeremiah1five Ordered by Date |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241580 | ||
PART TWO Romans 5:12 (KJV) 12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: 7. If it is the act(s) of sin by which man was made a sinner, then one cannot have the Doctrine of Imputation which declares that imputation is a nature-swap: 2 Corinthians 5:21 (KJV) 21 For he hath made him [to be] sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. if it is our act(s) of sin that made us sinners, then the Scripture might say, "For He [God] made Him [Christ] to be the acts of sin that we might be made the righteous acts of God" which would leave our sin-ful nature still within us and truly offensive to God. The Doctrine of Imputation states that we are imputed the righteousness of God (Peter says "divine nature" 2 Pet. 1:4) and this occurred when Christ was imputed our sin-ful nature (2 Co. 5:21) on the cross and the decree of God that the penalty for sin is death, this is what killed Him. It wasn't the acts of sin that killed Christ, but the sin-ful nature the Holy Child of God was imputed (laid on Him) that killed Him, and if one is to be accurate and honest with Scripture it wasn't sins-many that Christ died for, but sins-ONE that He died for: the sin-ful nature of man in Adam when he was created. John says: "The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world" John 1:29 (KJV) in which the word "sin" is singular (meaning ONE sin that Christ died for - and this would mean the sin-ful nature that man was created with because as Scripture says, "there is only One God, there is none like Him, He gives His glory to no one." If God's Elect people were contemplated in the Mind of God as Holy and Righteous [they were], then He contemplated us as Holy and Righteous in Him because there is no death in God, there is no sin in God, then while we were an "idea" in His Mind, it was by virtue of being created with a body formed from dirt/clay, from created matter (by-product) and any "thing" outside of God is sin or sin-ful for the only Person(s) that can stand before a Holy God is God the Son and God the Holy Spirit. Christ died twice on the cross for the sin-ful nature of man which was the "default" existence of man because there is only One God, there is none like Him, and He gives His glory to no one. Christ died twice on the cross to atone for the two deaths in man [Adam]. Bear in mind that God is just. God does not lay the penalty of death for sin upon the innocent. If death was decreed by God in the garden for sin, then since the animals did not sin and yet they die. They, too, were created sin-ful, or as the word is defined, "missing the mark" [of the glory of God.] Here is one more thing to consider: we are STILL under the penalty for sin. Cemeteries all over the world testify to this truth. I hop I have answered your statements and questions. |
||||||
82 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241579 | ||
PART ONE: Hello Beja, Romans 5:12 (KJV) 12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: I used to believe that it was the act of sin by which one is made a sinner, but that understanding did not line up with Scripture. Then that means that if man (hereinto meaning Adam unless suggested otherwise), became a sinner because he sinned, then one would have to have the following as conclusion: 1. man was created holy and/or righteous and sin comes from holy [or that which is holy.] 2. God reduplicated or shared or gave His glory to another (Isa. 44:6; 45:22.) 3. The Law(s) of God are His Commands, and the Commands of God are Law as God means what He says and says what He means, and if it is the Law which shows us to be sinners (Paul said, "I had not known lust except the law said thou shalt not covet" the same can be applied to God's command to man "thou shalt not eat of it..." revealing the existence of a "thou shalt not" in the garden which shows man to be a sinner before he actually performed the act of sin. In other words [applied to man], "I had not known disobedience except the law [God] said 'thou shalt not eat of it.'" 4. If God is the standard by which everything and everyone is judged, and the only two Persons that can stand before a holy God are the Son and the Spirit, then man was eternal BEFORE he sinned and the Scripture saying, "Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever..." would mean man was not eternal and since eternal-ness is an attribute of God and man was not eternal, then in this alone he fell short of the glory of God and Scripture calls this "sin" ["missing the mark."] If man needed the Tree of Life to "live forever" then man was "[fallen] short of the glory of God," or as the word is defined, "sin," or "sin-ful" ["missing the mark," that "mark" being the glory of God.] 5. If man was holy or righteous or eternal (all attributes/nature of God), then man was created with Deific attributes/nature of God [God reduplicated/shared His glory], and if one is to possess one attribute/nature of God then they MUST by necessity possess ALL attributes/nature of God else the man would still fall short of the glory of God for one cannot be half-human and half-Deity. There is no such thing as being "half-pregnant." 6. In Romans 5:12 there is no mention of an act of sin by which man became a sinner, but it does state that by one man [existing, created] sin entered into the world and death by sin..." man would have eventually died even if he did not perform any acts of sin in his life, but that was impossible for the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil did not change man and make him a sinner, the tree only served to give man the KNOWLEDGE of his sinful-ness. |
||||||
83 | HCSB what's your opinion? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241576 | ||
Hi Doc. Don't get me wrong, the use of other translations are helpful as I get to see and read how other linguists translate the Hebrew and Greek in their translations into English. I don't have a NASB nor a Holman's nor an Amplified (which I like) but I do have the ASV, BBE, GW, YLT, NIV, LB, NKJV, that I sometimes refer to. I also use a Strong's for assistance in the Hebrew and Greek and sometimes go online for assistance from other linguists for comparison or run into others that don't use a Strong's but maybe a BDB or some other scholar(s) for the same purpose. It's just that when I was first born again (even before that) I had always used a KJV. Later, as I learned more on the Bible I learned that no translation is the perfect copy of the original manuscripts. Even the KJV. But God has used this translation to teach me His Word through the years. |
||||||
84 | How do you share Jesus with others? | Eph 4:12 | jeremiah1five | 241575 | ||
PART TWO Acts 13:2 (KJV) 2 As they ministered to the Lord, and fasted, the Holy Ghost said, Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work whereunto I have called them. My question when looking at this Scripture is: "What call?" For partial understanding given the amount of information contained in these passages of Scripture we can conclude the LORD said something more specific than what is revealed in general to Ananias (Acts 9:15-16), and Paul's testimony to the crowd (Acts 22:21). Anything the LORD may have said to Paul would have to be verified so that those who were part of the external witness may know that God actually spoke to Paul and was speaking to them in Acts 13:2. I believe the only verifiable way to test this "spirit" manifested through prophecy (Acts 13:1-2) was through the Old Testament Scripture. Acts 13:3 shows there was more time that passed as they fasted and prayed some more. If these things are true, then the command Christ gave to the eleven in Matthew 28:19 and Acts 1:8 was a command given specifically to the eleven, and that today (or after the events in Matthew and Acts) when one is called by God and Christ, God will speak in accordance to the written and revealed Word of God. I am not saying that only the eleven were ever given the Matthew 28:19 command to service, I am saying that this call was not given to everyone in the Body of Christ as it is being taught today, thus making everyone an apostle. But if the Holy Spirit were to ever speak to one of His own today (as is described in Scripture), there will be an internal witness (God speaking directly to His servant and through His Word), and as described in Acts 13:2 an external witness through prophecy that will speak to the church fellowship IF the gift of prophecy in the fellowship is given free rein and is exercised and part of Biblical practice. If one of God's servants were to be called today the Holy Spirit can and may well have used the Scripture in Matthew 29:19 (or Acts 1:8), to get His message across to His servant and to reveal such a persons call to the church as well. There may well be some in the past and some today who may have a similar calling as the eleven, or as Paul, or as Epaphroditus (Phil. 2:25), etc. To test the validity of such consequence when it does happen the Scripture is the basis and the source to which we go in order to verify what God may have said to a person and to a church fellowship. The Holy Spirit (I believe) will not speak anything that is not revealed in Scripture (Jn. 16:13-14). If and when He does speak to His people it will be found to be what is already revealed in Scripture. How will a believer know the voice? Because the words will be the Word of God. Recognize the Word and you recognize the voice. And of course, the Presence of the Holy Spirit will be there glorifying Christ (the Word). If Christ is King, then I believe in the Kingdom Principle. We all have gifts and pounds and talents and calling that is not the same for everyone. Just as there are many parts in the body so there are many members. The Kingdom Principle is that which says that the royal baker does not mosey on into the royal motor-pool, remove the keys to the royal coach and proceed to take the royal coach for a spin. If Christ is King (and He is), then He is the one to appoint in His kingdom who does what and who serves in which way, we do not mimic the gift(s) and calling of another in the body of Christ. We wait to be discipled and when God is ready He will reveal your place in the body of Christ and what gifts and talents He has given you to accomplish that service to Him. We do not interpret Scripture and take a specific command the King gave to one of His servant and make it our own (unless somewhere in our walk the King has spoken specifically to "you." And when one has been given a mission by the King it's best to get out of the way :) (2) This/these are my own understanding and conclusions. |
||||||
85 | How do you share Jesus with others? | Eph 4:12 | jeremiah1five | 241574 | ||
Good Morning, Doc. And thank you for clarifying. Let me see if I understand what you are asking me: PART ONE (1) The "Great Commission" as it is called today was specifically given (as the original command is revealed and described in Matthew 28:19 and Acts 1:8) to the eleven disciples ONLY. This is how we are to first understand and interpret this command as the grammar makes distinction in "Go ye" (YOU eleven Go.) Yet in the same breath the Scriptures are given us from God for our training and admonition as well and that if God ever speaks to us He speaks to us through His Word. Having said that let me use Paul's experience in his call. On the Road to Damascus: Acts 9:15-16 (KJV) 15 But the Lord said unto him, Go thy way: for he is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel: 16 For I will shew him how great things he must suffer for my name's sake. Here, God reveals in general to Ananias the call and command of Paul. Later, when Paul testifies before the crowd he gives more information about his specific call and command: Acts 22:21 (KJV) 21 And he said unto me, Depart: for I will send thee far hence unto the Gentiles. This, I receive as an internal witness, that is, God spoke directly and specifically to Paul when he was born-again on the road to Damascus and immediately thereafter. But there was also an external witness concerning Paul: |
||||||
86 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241573 | ||
Hello Terry. I do not believe God created angels or man with free will. To me free will is an illusion. Not even God has free will except ONE will, that is, Good. If my conclusions that there is only One God, there is none like Him, and God gives His glory (holiness, righteousness, etc.), to no one, and that by virtue of creation angel and man was created sin-ful ("missing the mark"), that neither angel nor man was created with any Deific attributes or "properties" and that the rerason why man (Adam) sinned was because he was created sin-ful ("missing the mark") Sin comes from sinner. Man sinned because he was a sinner. He is not a sinner because he sinned. Man does not have free will because even the will in man is in bondage to sin (sinfulness), and that that bondage prevents man from being free in any part of his creation or being. The reason why I believe free will in man is an illusion because although we can choose between chocolate and vanilla, or to wear the blue shirt or gray one, the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil was not a tree that made Adam good or evil, but only served to give him the KNOWLEDGE of good and evil. Some say that Adam was "neutral" or "innocent," but I discount that knowing that such "neutrality" or "innocence" was voided when he did good and obeyed God to name the animals. If man sinned because he was created a sinner, then there is no free will. Sin comes from sinner. Sin does not come from holy. The last Adam proved this. Jesus Christ was born sinless and did not sin because of that sinless-ness and His holiness. All our choices to do this or that comes from a will in bondage, and that only God has such a "free will" to do or not do a thing, but that God does not have a "will" to do evil, thus, God has a will to do or not do a thing, but does not have an experimental will to do evil as man certainly does. Ephesians 2:10 (KJV) 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them. Worship, prayers, deeds from un-converted man is sin ("missing the mark") before God, and if these things are done void of the Holy Spirit, then they are sin-ful. The will is not free (saved and unsaved) because we are still in this body of this death and death is the penalty for sin (not necessarily doing acts of evil/sin. Are you following me on this? |
||||||
87 | Woman's place in Heaven | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241569 | ||
I'm kinda funny when it comes to "heaven." First, the word translated from the Hebrew is "shamayim" and I understand that there are only two "heavens" in creation: the first is the atmosphere from the ground to where outer-space begins, the second is outer-space (where the earth, moon, planets, stars) reside. If the question is "(what) is a woman's place in Christ?" I will answer that in spiritual matters they are of the same authority as the man, meaning, that in spiritual things there is neither male nor female and that a woman in Christ (anointing) in accordance to the order decree of God can be an apostle, prophet, evangelist, pastor-shepherd, or teacher (Eph. 4:11). That order being: God- Christ- everyone else in the Body of Christ. I also believe in Covenant the natural order established by God, that is: God_ Christ- man- woman. I also take 1 Corinthians 11:3 ... 1 Corinthians 11:3 (KJV) 3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God. ....that the man/male is head of the woman/female and that they do not have to be married. In other words, God has in Covenant given the care of His daughters to His sons to care for, defend, protect, teach, etc. |
||||||
88 | HCSB what's your opinion? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241568 | ||
Hello justme. My translation of preference is the King James Version of the Bible. Why? Again, to me it's a matter of authority. I believe God is Sovereign. I believe that God sits one man in a throne, and God removes one man from a throne (earthly throne, that is), and that for God's purpose not only sat King James I on the English throne, but also "moved/prompted" him to authorize a translation for the English-speaking people (his subject.) Now, I know in part that the Bishops Bible and maybe another earlier translation of the Hebrew and Greek Scriptures were "authorized," but for all intents and purposes so was the KJV as there is no one higher (on earth) than a king and I do not believe dictators, presidents, or any other leader of men or nation of people has any authority to translate the Scriptures or to order new translations. I believe that the unification of both Head of State and Head of Church is unified in Jesus Christ, but King James was also summarily head of state and head of church (Anglican), and that the only translation authorized for the English-speaking people is the King James Version. Anyone else care to give me your thoughts on this? |
||||||
89 | The Gospel According to Self | Zech 1:4 | jeremiah1five | 241567 | ||
This is true as I have witnessed many so-called Christians who hold to one (and other) passages of Scripture over another (and other) "contradictory" passages of Scripture that say an "opposite." I have heard from unbelievers that the Bible contradicts itself. However, it is my present belief that there are no contradictions in Scripture, and that a disciple that comes across these seeming contradictions should not teach one and discount or omit another for the simple reason that they have not yet learned to resolve such "tensions" and should not teach or preach one over the other (as Augustine implies) until they have resolved these "differences." I believe the context has much to do with handling these "contradictions" and that the disciple MUST come to the knowledge of the truth before opening their mouths (or keyboard) and say anything at all until then, but wait on the Holy Spirit to help them understand what they read. |
||||||
90 | How do you share Jesus with others? | Eph 4:12 | jeremiah1five | 241566 | ||
Hello Doc. Now it's my turn. I'm not sure what you're asking me. Can you please be a bit more specific? |
||||||
91 | How do you share Jesus with others? | Eph 4:12 | jeremiah1five | 241562 | ||
If I may...again, Jesus is speaking to the eleven disciples. This cannot be used to apply to EVERYONE in the body of Christ as the grammar in this verse reveals Jesus is emphatic in addressing the eleven. There are other verses that address the calling, command, and instruction to the various servants and ministries in the body of Christ, such as 1 Corinthians 12:4-6. In Acts 1:8 Jesus is speaking to the eleven disciples, and only to them: Acts 1:4-8 (KJV) 4 And, being assembled together with them, commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard of me. 5 For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence. 6 When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel? 7 And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power. 8 But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth. It would seem that it is only Jesus and the "eleven from Galilee: Acts 1:11 (KJV) 11 Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven. The ministry of apostle is not to establish churches. Being commissioned [apostle-ized] can include many different descriptions and services to the Lord. And a review of these ministries described in Ephesians 4:11-12 reveals that these ministries, gifts and callings are not to the world, but to the Church: Ephesians 4:11-12 (KJV) 11 And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; 12 For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ: It doesn't say, "for the perfecting of the world, for the work of the world, for the edification of the world," and I could not in good conscience teach that these instructions and commands of the Holy Spirit is written in stone and be strict and dogmatic about these callings and ministries, for Paul was called to be apostle and his specific command and instruction was "to go far unto the Gentiles" |
||||||
92 | How do you share Jesus with others? | Eph 4:12 | jeremiah1five | 241559 | ||
If I may...the qualifier is contained in Matthew 28:19 with the words "Go Ye," which in English is "YOU go" [speaking to the eleven disciples.] The Greek word translated "apostle" by the KJV translators means "commissioned" and I cannot receive that EVERYONE in the Body of Christ is an apostle with the same ministry and calling and command as the eleven. But if one is going to disobey grammatical rules then the same command also includes those so-called to go to Jerusalem, Judaea, Samaria, and the uttermost parts of the then-known world [east from the Mount of Olives]. But Paul said in the negative: "Are all apostles?" and the answer is no, we are not. Where is the prophet or pastor, or foot or ear, etc. Besides, the Word of God, the Scriptures are written by God and given to believers - not to the non-Covenant world at large. It's a family thing. There is also no distinction in the Word of God as "milk" or "meat." It is all nutritious to the born again of God. Since God opens eyes and ears and shuts eyes and ears as well as the mind, He determines who and when one comes to an understanding of His Truth. |
||||||
93 | How do you share Jesus with others? | Eph 4:12 | jeremiah1five | 241552 | ||
I do not believe the so-called "Great Comission" is given to every member in the Body of Christ, except to those specifically called by Christ as it was given specifically to the eleven disciples. We are not all thumbs in the body of Christ. We are not all apostles in the body of Christ. I prefer to believe that we are all commanded to live as peaceably as possible with all men and to always be ready to give an answer to those that ask of the hope in you with reserved strength and reverent respect, and if they don't ask then to say nothing. Being taught correct Biblical Doctrine is important and necessary before the Lord use you, for the Spirit of Truth cannot use lies, error, or heresy when trying to bring increase to what you may be planting or watering. Depending. |
||||||
94 | Has The GLORY of the LORD left the USA? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241548 | ||
I will say this, and it applies to not just the USA, but the world... In order for darkness to increase the Holy Spirit must withdraw. He is the One that is keeping evil in check. And in order for us to identify the antichrist the Holy Spirit must withdraw His Presence in the world. |
||||||
95 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241547 | ||
Hi EdB. No confusion here. I believe what I believe because the Scripture says it and my mind is wrapped around it. My edification is not complete. I have not reached my measure of faith because I am here still to talk about it. I was surprised only because I never read Calvin and here I am on the same page as he was. Or that J. Edwards and I see the same Jesus, or Charles Hodge, etc. It's even a blessing as a surprise when I post my faith and understanding and another believer also sees the same Jesus. But I do know that Calvin saw the same as Augustine who also saw the same as Paul (2 Tim. 2:2). It's a blessing, that all. | ||||||
96 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241539 | ||
Good words, Doc. I will consider them. Thank you. |
||||||
97 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241537 | ||
Whoa! You mean that I saw/seen the same thing in Scripture as Calvin and Martin Luther? I have never read Calvin nor studied any of his works nor Martin Luther's, and here I am coming to the same conclusion as these two men. How about this: Paul says the Law is spiritual. Scripture also says man is flesh. As a fleshly man the Law kills, but to a born again spirit-man the Law cannot touch us. Spirit-ual cannot harm spirit-ual. I have read only the Scriptures and I have visited many various sites, but I have never read nor studied men of God in the past who have published books, and at places I have been called a Calvinist for my views and I hate that designation. I don't like being called a Calvinist. I prefer to be a Biblical Christian. That's the ONLY KIND there is in existence. If one's Christianity is not Biblical, then it is NOT Christianity. Bottom line. Thank you, Doc. |
||||||
98 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241522 | ||
Hi Doc. I am also of the belief that Christ was the image of God when He created Adam/man. We are being conformed into the image of Christ, not Adam (Rom. 8:29). It is God that makes us holy and nothing we do. Our justification is in our salvation that because of Christ God declares us "Not Guilty!" of transgressing His Law(s). And now as a believer who has been atoned and justified, the "All Scripture" Paul spoke of in 2 Timothy 3:16-17 includes The Law, the Psalms, and the Prophets. Imaging that. When unatoned it was the Law that condemned us, but now as atoned beings in Christ it is the Law that God now uses to "instruct us in righteousness, for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, etc. | ||||||
99 | God created man sin-ful? | Not Specified | jeremiah1five | 241519 | ||
Scripture teaches that there is only One God, that God gives His glory to no one, and there is none like God. I do not believe God can reduplicate Himself in Himself so part of His plan for man is to create heaven, earth, etc. I have come to believe that God created man (Adam) sin-ful, or as the word is defined by Strong's "to miss the mark." What is that "mark?" The glory of God. Adam sinned because he was created a sinner, or sin-ful, as there is only One God. If God is the standard by which everyone and everything is judged, and if Paul is correct that "I had not known sin but by the Law. For I had not known lust except the Law said 'thou shalt not covet." Wouldn't the command to Adam "thou shalt not eat of it [the fruit/tree]" also qualify as a law/command of "thou shalt not" showing that Adam was a sinner? Adam had not known disobedience except the law/command said "thou shalt not eat of it?" Sin comes from sinners, sin does not come from holy, and if man was anything less than holy he would sin. The last Adam proves this? |
||||||
100 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241520 | ||
Scripture teaches that there is only One God, that God gives His glory to no one, and there is none like God. I do not believe God can reduplicate Himself in Himself so part of His plan for man is to create heaven, earth, etc. I have come to believe that God created man (Adam) sin-ful, or as the word is defined by Strong's "to miss the mark." What is that "mark?" The glory of God. Adam sinned because he was created a sinner, or sin-ful, as there is only One God. If God is the standard by which everyone and everything is judged, and if Paul is correct that "I had not known sin but by the Law. For I had not known lust except the Law said 'thou shalt not covet." Wouldn't the command to Adam "thou shalt not eat of it [the fruit/tree]" also qualify as a law/command of "thou shalt not" showing that Adam was a sinner? Adam had not known disobedience except the law/command said "thou shalt not eat of it?" Sin comes from sinners, sin does not come from holy, and if man was anything less than holy he would sin. The last Adam proves this? |
||||||
Result pages: << First < Prev [ 1 2 3 4 5 6 ] Next > Last [6] >> |