Results 81 - 97 of 97
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: alanh Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | The rapture, A comming event, Pg 3. | 1 Thess 4:16 | alanh | 126009 | ||
Where do you read the word "rapture" in the Bible? It is not there nor is the concept there, the "raopture" is not a coming event it is not an event at all.. Read Matthew 24 closely and notice how many times the Lord says "you," this is because those events were to happen in their life time not centuries from then. All of chapter 24 with the exception of verses 36ff have been fulfilled. Notice what Jesus says in verse 34: "Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass away, till all these things be accomplished" (Matt. 24:34). Jesus is predicting the destruction of Jerusalem in 70CE and with that destruction ends Judaism. There can be no more sacrifice because there is no more priesthood (with the temple destroyed there are no more genealogical records). When one looks to the book of Revelation for information there are 4 things that must be remembered about the prophesies: 1) It is a Revelation (1:1);(2) to seven churches in Asia (1:11); (3) in signs [He sent and sign-i-fied it](1:1); (4) of things that must shor,tly come to pass (1:1; cf. 1:3; 22:6,10). Now with this information in hand we find that Revelation cannot be referring to events in the far future because the apostle plainly states the events will "shortly come to pass." Revelation also has little meaning for any but the 7 churches of Asia to whom they were written. John in the fist chapter of Revelation states that the tribulation was in his own time "I John, your brother and partaker with you in tribulation and kingdom and patience which are in Jesus, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God and the testimony of Jesus" (Revelation 1:9) and then in signs and symbols tells of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70CE. It is a message of hope to the Christian of the first century. The Scripture you have referenced 1 Thessalonians 4:16 is referring to the end of the age when Christ returns. The time of judgment. 1 Thessalonians 4:18 "Wherefore comfort one another with these words." |
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82 | Did Jesus go to hell after dying? | Ephesians | alanh | 124722 | ||
The full penaty for our sins is "death" (Romans 6:23). We are not condemned to "Gehenna" (Hell) or Heaven until the judgment. Christ descended into Hades A place of the unseen, divided into two sides--"Abraham's bosom" (Luke 16:22,23), also known as "Paradise" (Luke 24:43), and "torments" (Luke 16:23), also known as "Tartarus". The divisions can be observed as follows: I. In the world innocent and saved / lost DEATH II. Sheol or Hades paradise // tartarus RESURRECTION III. Final Judgment rewarded (come to heaven) // condemned (depart to Gehenna the lake of fire) / equals gulf not fixed // equals gulf fixed |
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83 | Did Jesus go to hell after dying? | Ephesians | alanh | 124721 | ||
Hades, on either side, is not to be depopulated until Christ returns. The dead reside in Hades until that time. Hades and Hell are not the same thing. | ||||||
84 | Did Jesus go to hell after dying? | Ephesians | alanh | 124720 | ||
The fact of the matter is that the KJV of the Bible mistranslates the Scripture found in Psalm 16:10; Acts 2:27,31: "For thou wilt not leave my soul in HELL; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption" (Ps 16:10) "Because Thou wilt not leave my soul in HELL, neither wilt Thou suffer Thine Holy One to see corruption...He seeing this before spake of thr resurrection of Christ, that His soul not left in HELL, neither His flesh did see corruption" (Ac 2:27,31). As you can see from above the word HELL is used 3 times in reference to Christ. Unfortunately the KJV has mistranslated the term in the original Hebrew and Greek. The term in Hebrew is "Sheol" and in Greek "Hades" and neither term means HELL but rathar means the "unseen". Jesus did not go to HELL but went to the real of the undead. To better understand this world we go to Luke 16 where Jesus tells the story (not parable) of the rich man and Lazurus. We know it is not a parable because a specific persons name is used. In the story the two men die, the rich man going to "torments" and Lazurus to "Abraham's bosom. There is "a great gulf fixed" between the two places of which it is said, "they that would pass from hence to you may not be able, and that none may cross over from thence to us." The rich man is dipcted as "in anguish" and Lazarus "comfort." This same place of comfort is where Jesus went when He died. In fact it is the same place He promised the thief on the cross he would be with Him---"And he said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To-day shalt thou be with me in Paradise" (Luke 23:43)--"Paradise" and "Abraham's bosom" both being the same place. |
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85 | Adultery by both parties. Divorce? | NT general Archive 1 | alanh | 124717 | ||
The remarriage in the case you are referring to would refer to any divorce then this is not so, but only to divorce where it was done for other reason than fornication (adultry, sexual immoralatry). Follow the meaning of divorce (apoluo) logically---i.e. what does it mean.] Please notice as I have shown you two cases are stated: 1) no divorce in the eyes of God 2) divorce in the eyes of God If you are saying REMARRIAGE means adultry then it only follows that both parties are still married and neither can remarry, but if one can remarry BECAUSE THEY ARE DIVORCED DUE TO UNFAITHFULNESS then both can remarry BECAUSE THEY ARE DIVORCED---NO LONGER MARRIED!!! The fact is God hates divorce (Malachi 2:16). Couples should always try to work things out, even when marital unfaithfulness is involved. But when it cannot and divorce for fornication is the cause then the divorce applies to both parties one cannot still be married and commit adultry while the other cannot it is not logical nor is it what the Scriptures say. |
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86 | Adultery by both parties. Divorce? | NT general Archive 1 | alanh | 124609 | ||
The Scripture says two things: 1) Divorce, except for adultry eguals adultry 2) Divorce, in the case of adultry eguals divorce not adultry. Divorce means the parties involved are no longer married! |
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87 | Only ONE God | Mark 12:32 | alanh | 124515 | ||
Genesis 1:1 "In the beginning GOD (Elohim, a plural singular word)created" (John 1:1) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:14) And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father), full of grace and truth. (Acts 5:3) But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thy heart to lie to the Holy Spirit, and to keep back part of the price of the land? (Acts 5:4) While it remained, did it not remain thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thy power? How is it that thou hast conceived this thing in thy heart? thou has not lied unto men, but unto God. Note the following from the proceeding verses: 1) Elohim is a plural singular 2) The Word was with God...the Word was God...the Word became flesh (the Word, God, is two different entities) 3) Ananias lied to the Holy Spirit at the same time as to God...they are one and the same yet different. |
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88 | Post-Endtime Martyrs | Mark 9:1 | alanh | 124511 | ||
Mark 9:1 "And Jesus was saying to them, "Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God after it has come with power." Jesus here is specifically speaking to His 12 apostles, of which Judas was present. As we know Judas hung himself in remorse for betraying Christ (Matthew 27:5). In the book of Acts chapter one we find the following "and, being assembled together with them, he charged them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the promise of the Father, which, said he, ye heard from me: For John indeed baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized in the Holy Spirit not many days hence. They therefore, when they were come together, asked him, saying, Lord, dost thou at this time restore the kingdom to Israel? And he said unto them, It is not for you to know times or seasons, which the Father hath set within His own authority. But ye shall receive power, when the Holy Spirit is come upon you: and ye shall be my witnesses both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea and Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth" (Acts 1:4-8)[note they are asking about an earthly kingdom, the kingdom is spiritual, and Jesus tells them about the power of the H.S. they are to receive]. Acts 2 tells of the kingdom coming with power and some that were standing with Jesus in Mark 9:1 are here. Colossians 1:8 tells us the kigdom is already here. When did it come? Acts chapter 2 on Pentecost with power. |
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89 | The Rapture, a comming event. | Titus 2:13 | alanh | 124508 | ||
You are correct most ministeries do espouse this belief, but it is not biblically based. The church of Christ does not teach this. | ||||||
90 | Adultery by both parties. Divorce? | NT general Archive 1 | alanh | 124507 | ||
The term divorce comes from the Greek word apoluo and means "to loose, set free." If one is loosed or set free do they not have the right to marry or are they still "bound." Both partys are set free not just one. You are misreading the Scriptures or reading them the way they have been intrepreted without regard to the meaning of the Greek word. A divorce involves both partys not just half. | ||||||
91 | The Rapture, a comming event. | Titus 2:13 | alanh | 124506 | ||
This Scripture has nothing to do with the so called rapture, butis referencing the end of time when Christ returns to judge all. | ||||||
92 | Cessation of the gift of tongues | 1 Cor 13:8 | alanh | 124436 | ||
The kingdom of Christ has come else how would the Colossians be "transferred...tothe kingdom of His beloved Son." All thru the Bible up until Acts 2 we are told of the kingdom coming after Acts 2 the kingdom is spoken of as a fact. The church and the kingdom are one and the same thing note Jesus words in Matthew 16 where church and kingdom of heaven are used interchangably, "Blessed are you Simon Barjona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven. I also say to you that you are Peter(Petros), and upon this rock (petra) I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it. I will give you (plural) the keys to the kingdom of heaven (used instead of church); and whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heave, and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven." The miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit were designed to aid the fledgeling church in its establishment. They were not designed to continue indefinetly. When Paul said they would cease that is exactly what he meant. 1 Corinthians 13:8-10 tells when the gifts would cease; "when that which is perfect is come." This reference to that which is perfect in construction is not referring to Christ because He had already come. This passage does not say anything about coming again. The passage is referring to the completed New Testament once it had come we would no longer know in part but would know fully. As to your reference to the baptism of the Holy Spirit, this only happened twice (Acts 2 and Acts 10). The gifts of the Holy Spirit were passed on by the laying on of the apostles hands (Acts 8:14-17). If you read Acts 8 you find that Philip altho he had miraculous power could not pass it on, the apostles came from Jerusalem and laid their hands on the believers in order to impart the gofts of the Spirit. There are no apostles today to impart the gift onto believers and the belivers of the first century have long ago died. How are the gifts passed on today? Did God decide to try something new? The evidence indicates that the gifts of the Spirit have ceased. I know of no one today who speaks in a tongue (known language)not studied. |
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93 | Are Christians to keep the Sabbath? | Ex 20:8 | alanh | 124429 | ||
According to Scripture the Law was nailed to the cross (Colossians 2:14). We are no longer obligated to the old covenant, the Ten Commandments (Exodus 34:28), we are under the new covenant which was established by Christ (Luke 22:20). In the New Testament we find that the Christians came together to take the Lord's Supper on the first day of the week (Acts 20:7). Paul also commanded us to "put aside and save, as he has prospered" on the first day of the week. Biblical evidence points toward the meeting of the saints on the first day of the week and the command from the Old Testament, "remember the sabbath" as part of the old covenant and obsolete. |
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94 | The rise of Antichrist, we are close. | Dan 9:27 | alanh | 124412 | ||
The antichrist has come, "Little children, it is the last hour: and as ye heard that antichrist cometh, even now have there arisen many antichrists; whereby we know that it is the last hour"(1 John 2:18); "Who is the liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? This is the antichrist, even he that denieth the Father and the Son." (1 John 2:22); "and every spirit that confesseth not Jesus is not of God: and this is the spirit of the antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it cometh; and now it is in the world already" (1 John 4:3). As you can see the antichrist, "every spirit that confesseth not Jesus is not of God," is already among us he (they) are not yet to come. Daniel 9 is a prophetic chronology enabling the studious Hebrew to know when the promised Messiah would die for the sins of humanity. The chronology of this prophetic context involves three things: (a) a commencement point; (b) a duration period; and (c) a concluding event. The beginning point was to coincide with a command to “restore and rebuild Jerusalem.” The time span between the starting point and the concluding event was specified as “seventy weeks.” This would be seventy weeks of seven days each — a total of 490 days. Each day was to represent a year in prophetic history. Most conservative scholars hold that the symbolism denotes a period of approximately 490 years Finally, the terminal event would be the “cutting off,” (i.e., the death) of the Anointed One (9:26). [NOTE: Actually, the chronology is divided into three segments, the total of which represents 486½ years. This would be the span between the command to restore Jerusalem, and the Messiah’s death.] If one is able to determine the date of the commencement point of this prophecy, it then becomes a relatively simple matter to add to that the time-duration specified in the text, thus concluding the precise time when the Lord was to be slain. Let us therefore narrow our focus regarding this matter. There are but three possible dates for the commencement of the seventy-week calendar. First, Zerubbabel led a group of Hebrews out of captivity in 536 B.C. This seems to be an unlikely beginning point, however, because 486 years from 536 B.C. would end at 50 B.C., which was eighty years prior to Jesus’ death. Second, Nehemiah led a band back to Canaan in 444 B.C. Is this the commencement point for computing the prophecy? Probably not, for 486 years after 444 B.C. ends at A.D. 42 — a dozen years after the death of Christ. However, in 457 B.C., Ezra took a company from Babylon back to Jerusalem. Does this date work mathematically? Indeed. If one starts at 457 B.C., and goes forward for 486 ½ years, the resulting date is A.D. 30 — the very year of Christ’s crucifixion! In “the midst” of the seventieth week, i.e., after the fulfillment of the 486½ years, the Anointed One was to be “cut off.” This is a reference to the death of Jesus. Isaiah similarly foretold that Christ would be “cut off out of the land of the living” (Isaiah 53:8). But why are the “seventy weeks” of Daniel’s prophecy divided into three segments — seven weeks, 62 weeks, and the “midst” of one week? There was purpose in this breakdown. The first division of “seven weeks” (literally, forty-nine years) covers that period of time during which the actual rebuilding of Jerusalem would be underway, following the Hebrews’ return to Palestine (9:25b). This was the answer to Daniel’s prayer (9:16). That reconstruction era was to be one of “troublous times.” The Jews’ enemies had harassed them in earlier days (see Ezra 4:1-6), and they continued to do so in the time of Ezra and Nehemiah. The second segment of sixty-two weeks (434 years), when added to the previous forty-nine, yields a total of 483 years. When this figure is computed from 457 B.C., it terminates at A.D. 26. This was the year of Jesus’ baptism and the beginning of His public ministry. Finally, the “midst of the week” (3½ years) reflects the time of the Lord’s preaching ministry. This segment of the prophecy concludes in A.D. 30 — the year of the Savior’s death. |
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95 | The Flood Chronology | Gen 7:4 | alanh | 124396 | ||
The flooding only lasted forty days and forty nights. The results of the flooding lasted one year and ten days. | ||||||
96 | The Rapture, a comming event. | Titus 2:13 | alanh | 124393 | ||
Where exactly do you read about "the rapture" these words are no where found in the New Testament much less the Bible. "The rapture" is a misconception of what Jesus was talking about in Matthew 24 where He is talking of the coming destruction of Jerusalem in 70CE | ||||||
97 | Adultery by both parties. Divorce? | NT general Archive 1 | alanh | 124391 | ||
Altho both have sinned and supposedly repented. The Scriptures teach that adultry is a valid reason for divorce (Matthew 19:9). If he has asked for divorce on these grounds he is within his rights of course this does not mean that you are not free to remarry after divorce whether you are considered the "guilty" party or not divorce is divorce and ends the marriage bond for both in the couple. | ||||||
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