Results 81 - 94 of 94
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Aspilos Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | Is tongues a matter of fact? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 56079 | ||
Hello retxar, If I didn't know any better I would think you were starting to take a liking to me. Without a doubt, we are just spinning our wheels now. Without scripture, you're not likely to convince me that speaking with tongues is an, "evidence" and it's obvious that you're not planning on changing your view either. You ended with a good verse, but you cut it short my friend. God Bless! Aspilos I Cor. 14 21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. 22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. |
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82 | Is tongues a matter of fact? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55995 | ||
Again, you are wrong my friend. You say in Acts 10:47, "only those who believed and were informed were present." Fact is, as I have already told you, it is obvious that they DID NOT BELIEVE that this Gospel was for the Gentiles. You see, they were, "astonished" for that very reason. So, through the Gentiles speaking with tongues, the Holy Spirit SIGNified to them that receiving the Holy Ghost was even for the likes of a Gentile, guiding them you might say, in the right direction and shining a light upon their understanding. 1 Cor. 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a SIGN, not to them that believe, but TO THEM THAT BELIEVE NOT: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. Again, tongues is not an, "evidence" mainly because it is not scriptural. And as you have already acknowledged, because it can be imitated. You seem to be avoiding my quesions, so I guess I'll just have to repeat them each time. If someone is devious enough to pretend that they are speaking with tongues, does that mean they have received the Holy Ghost? I'm not accusing anyone, but we live in an evil day and it's not impossible. Don't avoid this question. It is important. Is the very sound of someone speaking in tongues, "evidence" that they have received the Holy Ghost? I think we both know the answer to that question. I Cor 14:21-22 explains clearly the purpose of speaking with tongues. That includes your example of Acts 10:47. As for you accusing me of being an accuser, if I name a denomination for you, then an accuser I would be, no? I have no desire to personally attack anyone, but I do believe in attacking a lie. God Bless! Aspilos |
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83 | Is tongues a matter of fact? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55971 | ||
retxar, I don't recall pointing a finger at anyone in particular. The term Pentecostal may include a number of denominations. Don't be so offensive, I believe we are on the same side after all. I must tell you though, whether you know of it or not, there are, "mainline Pentecostal churches" that teach that speaking with tongues is a prerequisite to salvation. I have a close family member who attends such a church. They base their teaching on, "tongues being the evidence of the Holy Ghost" as well as, "scriptural examples and experiences." Again, tongues is not an, "evidence" mainly because it is not scriptural. And as you have already acknowledged, because it can be imitated. If someone is devious enough to pretend that they are speaking with tongues, does that mean they have received the Holy Ghost? I'm not accusing anyone, but we live in an evil day and it's not impossible. Don't avoid this question. It is important. Is the very sound of someone speaking in tongues, "evidence" that they have received the Holy Ghost? I think we both know the answer to that question. I Cor 14:21-22 explains clearly the purpose of speaking with tongues. That includes your example of Acts 10:47. 1 Corinthians 14 21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. 22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. |
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84 | Is tongues a matter of fact? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55880 | ||
retxar, I was raised in a Pentecostal church from my youth and was taught, in short, that salvation came in the form of, "the evidence of speaking in tongues." Their key to supporting this false teaching is to speak of tongues as, "evidence." I have never accused anyone of imitating this gift, but I do recognize the possibility. The idea that tongues is for, "evidence" was probably not yet invented at the time Paul had written his warnings to the Corinthians, but then again, you and I both know that there are a number of false teachings in existence today that were not around at the time of the early church. It really doesn't matter that there are no warnings about someone imitating tongues, but what I find most important is scripture supporting the idea that speaking in tongues is an, "evidence" since it is an actual doctrine being taught to new converts every day. You acknowledge the fact that it can be imitated and to that we agree. You must also know that actual, "evidence" can not be. Did you know that there are churches that teach the followers to speak with tongues. God Bless! Aspilos |
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85 | Is tongues a matter of fact? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55852 | ||
I agree with you. But I would like to know if you believe that speaking with tongues can be imitated? You said, "I can't see the Apostles teaching anything different according to Acts 10:45-47." What, in your opinion are the Apostles teaching us in this passage of scripture? I would really like to know what your view is. God Bless! Aspilos |
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86 | Is tongues a matter of fact? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55784 | ||
retxar, your definition for sign is, "Something that suggests..." An atheist may tell you that our God being invisible, suggests that He doesn't exist, but that doesn't make it a fact, does it? Signs can be altered. Evidence is, "helpful in forming a conclusion" because it can not be altered. If it could, it wouldn't be evidence and neither could it be instumental in forming a conclusion or proving a fact. Do you believe it is a fact that someone has received the Holy Ghost because they spoke with tongues? God bless! Aspilos |
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87 | IS TONGUES FOR TODAY? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55742 | ||
retxar, speaking with tongues may be a, "result of" the Holy Spirit, but it is not a matter of pick and choose between the two words, evidence and sign. They bear two very different meanings. Look it up in a dictionary. EVIDENCE is 100 percent irrefutable proof and a SIGN is not. Speaking with tongues as a sign may lead an unbeliever in the right direction, but it is not intended for evidence to the believer or the person who is doing the speaking. If a believer has need of an external evidence, he's lacking faith, a very important part of our salvation. Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity [love], I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal. 1 Corinthians 13:1 Also, if speaking with tongues were evidence, Paul should have acknowledged it here, but instead he refers to someone who, "speaks with the tongues of men and of angels" and "has not love" as becoming as a, "sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal." In saying that someone doesn't have love is essentially saying one does not have God. What Paul was doing was showing them, "a more excellent way." 1 Corinthians 12:31 But covet earnestly the best gifts: and yet shew I unto you a more excellent way. As for your reference to Acts 10:45-47, you furthered the point by saying, "The Apostles were assured that the Gentiles were indeed filled with the Holy Spirit" At that time, the Apostles DID NOT BELIEVE that receiving the Holy Spirit was for the Gentiles. That's why they were astonished. When these Gentiles spoke with tongues, it was a sign to them. God bless! Aspilos |
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88 | hoyy spirit bap. evidence tounges? | Acts | Aspilos | 55500 | ||
I just came along and noticed that this statement has gone long uncontested, but I have to reply just in case someone else decides to read it and buy it. First, one should be careful about making statements like, "If you been told that tongues are not for you.Then you was told a lie.", for that is exactly what Paul was telling the Corinthians in this verse. 1 Corinthians 12:30 Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret? If you wish to know why believers spoke in tongues while in the presence of unbelievers Paul explained that also. 1 Corinthians 14:22 Wherefore TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN, not to them that believe, but TO THEM THAT BELIEVE NOT: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. I have not changed the wording, but I did type some of the words into uppercase. This is the part that is often overlooked. No where do the scriptures ever suggest that speaking in tongues is evidence for the believer. A true believer should not have a need for an external evidence unless he is lacking in faith. Heb. 11:1 Now FAITH is the substance of things hoped for, the EVIDENCE of things not seen. Again, I have typed the key words in uppercase. |
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89 | IS TONGUES FOR TODAY? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55375 | ||
I believe it is very possible that tongues can be for a sign even in the day we live, especially where there is a mix of culture as it was on the day of Pentecost. If however, all the believers share a common language, tongues can not be for a sign. That's why Paul warned the Corinthian's of it's abuse. God Bless! Aspilos |
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90 | IS TONGUES FOR TODAY? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55352 | ||
inmyheart, in response to you question, "What is the good thing of speaking in tongues, forget the bad thing?", there is no, "bad thing" about any of the gifts of God. This gift, just as any other, serves a purpose and that purpose is explained in 1 Corinthians 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. We see the good thing about speaking in tongues on the day of Pentecost. Although there were devout Jews present, they were not believers in the Lord Jesus. When the believers spoke in tongues, the unbelievers heard and this was a sign to them, even though many did not believe as was also prophesied. |
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91 | IS TONGUES FOR TODAY? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55295 | ||
First of all, understand that what I had written was, "the bad thing about teaching that tongues is the evidence of the Holy Ghost", and not the bad thing about teaching about speaking in tongues. I am not attacking speaking in tongues, but rather, teaching that it is the evidence of the Holy Ghost, for that is not true. | ||||||
92 | IS TONGUES FOR TODAY? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55294 | ||
I could not agree with you more on every thing that you have just said, but this still doesn't change the fact that tongues are for a sign and are never referred to as, "evidence". As for the Isaiah quote in 1 Co 14:21, that was something that took place on the day of Pentecost. | ||||||
93 | IS TONGUES FOR TODAY? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55188 | ||
Not to argue, but what I'm saying is that speaking in tongues should never be considered the evidence of receiving the Holy Ghost (Spirit). This is something that can easily be conterfeited. That's why Paul refers to it as a sign, and signs can be altered, evidence can not. If it were possible, it would not be evidence. What Jesus did for us out of his love was evidence. His love could not have been faked. 1 John 3:14 We know that we have passed from death unto life, because we love the brethren. He that loveth not his brother abideth in death. The bad thing about teaching that speaking with tongues is the evidence of the Holy Ghost is that it gives a lot of people a false sence of security that they are saved when in reality, it was never at all intended for that purpose. I know I showed you this verse already, but look at it real close. 1 Corinthians 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. |
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94 | IS TONGUES FOR TODAY? | 1 Cor 14:5 | Aspilos | 55049 | ||
Sorry to intrude, but I have say, that speaking in tongues is not an evidence and is never referred to as such in the Bible. 1 Corinthians 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. If tongues is not a sign for the believer, why do we need it for evidence? Jesus spoke of the generation that sought after signs as wicked. Heb. 11:1 tells us what the evidence really is. Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen. |
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