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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | Was this translated completely? | Zech 12:10 | following him | 122048 | ||
Thank you very much. I appriciate your help. But you raise a few more questions. I've never been very good at understanding parts of sentaces and dont real know how they are put together. I did terrible in English throughout school. I'm a bit dislexic. So forgive me if my questions seem rather simple. You said that it was interesting that those words were use here in Zech 12:10, why do you say that? I also looked up those other verses you mentioned and all but 2 Kings involve the Lord God being mentioned. What is different about the hebrew in that verse than the others? If those letters were left out of the Hebrew would Zech 12:10 and the other references you gave be translated any differently? the reason I'm realy on this one is because 2 Tim 3:16 "All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;" I dont believe that there are coincedenses in what God directed to be put in scripture. Even what He omits can be significant. And as I study Revelations I believe I will be following themes in this book all the way back through the OT to the beginning. This Alpha and Omega may be one of those themes that God started in Genesis. The reference you gave for Gen 4:1 supports that idea. I may be wrong and I can accept that but I will learn that much more about My God and His word. His grace be with you. |
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82 | Was this translated completely? | Zech 12:10 | following him | 121966 | ||
I am curently studying the book of Revelation. Rev 1:7 "BEHOLD, HE IS COMING WITH THE CLOUDS, and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the earth will mourn over Him. So it is to be. Amen." This is a quote from Zech 12:10. The next verse 1:8 "I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty." Jesus claims the Title "Alpha and Omega" indicating diety and eternity. Alpha and Omega are the first and last letters of the greek alphabet thus its the first and the last, the beginning and the end etc. One of my commentary references I am using during this study mentioned that in the interlinear Bible in Zech 12:10, the hebrew has between the word Me and the word whom two letters that were not translated into the English. Those two letters are the first and last letters of the Hebrew alphabet. If it true then it could be indicating in this verse that the one they crucified was God. It would read something like this. They will look upon ME aleph and Tav (the beginning and the end) whom they have pierced. This would be a Old testament reference to Alpha and Omega. It is significant for Messianic prophecy. But I also need to check to see if my sources are acurate. Are these two letters there in the Hebrew but not translated into English? | ||||||
83 | Rowdy, NO, Answer my question first | Matt 5:17 | following him | 121845 | ||
I am 41 you are old therefore obsolete according to your own standard. You have nothing to add to my spiritual development. You claim you want a biblical discussion on this subject yet your whole foundation for you belief is the title of the book not the scriptures contained it. Even when we give you scriptures which you yourself say supports our view you reject them only to fall back on the OT is called Old therefore it is obsolete idea. You toss away God's written word because its called old. The division of the bible was based on time diffences. And the establishment of the new covenent (Jesus Blood as opposed to animal sacrifice) Faith has always been the issued where righteousness before God has been concerned consider Abraham. And is not a new covenant idea. But thank God that age does not matter with God the old are still vitally important to the body of Christ as John points out in his firt epistle when he writes to the fathers, young men and little children. | ||||||
84 | Rowdy, NO, Answer my question first | Matt 5:17 | following him | 121840 | ||
How old are you Rowdy? | ||||||
85 | Rowdy, NO, Answer my question first | Matt 5:17 | following him | 121823 | ||
Hello all: I don't realy know where to get into this discussion, but I would like to toss in my two cents. This is what I see (which may or may not raise a few eyebrows). First the idea that the OT is not on a par with the NT I find hard to believe since Paul himself said in 2 Tim 3:16-17 that "All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work." The scriptures he was refering to was the OT. Sounds to me like this was refering to religious issues. But how much influence does the Law and OT have on us Christians. None of of can come to Christ without following the Law. (That will raise a few brows I bet) The law says that sin must be punished. In the law The punishment was death however; God instituted the sacrifices as a way to cover sins. So a lamb or goat or bull shed its blood for the covering of sins. Hebrews 9:22 "Indeed, under the law almost everything is purified with blood, and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins" It is still the same today The only way we are forgiven for our sins is by sacrificing of innocent blood Jesus' blood. this is why He is called the Lamb of God. No one can come to the Father except they come through this sacrifice. You may consider this the fulfillment of the law. But it is still the Law, mirrors it exactly. You may not receive forgiveness of your sins without the shedding of blood. Only Christ did it once for all. I hope this makes sense. It shows that all who come to christ still have to offer innocent blood Jesus' blood. Now do we still have to abide by the things written in the law? Yes! Matt 5:20 "For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven." The pharisees obeyed the letter of the law but it was not good enough. Matthew takes the next three chapters (The so-called sermon on the mount) to explain that The heart or intent of the law must be followed. Hard as you may try, you can not keep the intent of the law without keeping the letter of it. But you can keen the letter of the law without keeping the intent. This is what the pharisees were doing. Jesus Said that in order for us to enter the kingdom of heaven we must go farther than just keeping the letter. Now does that mean we dont sin? No. In the law sacifices of innocent blood were offer every year for the covering of their sins that they continually committed. So do we 1 John 2:1,2 "My little children, I am writing this to you so that you may not sin; but if any one does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; and he is the expiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. When we sin we still come back to offer the innocent blood. Jesus' blood. Christ does not die again but He does present His blood agsin This is why John specifically mentions that He is the expiation for our sins. This is reference to His blood. We do the same thing when we sin again just as those in teh OT did we go to the blood. Now to the idea that the old testament does not have authority. Because it is not the words of Christ. We do know that John 5:9 says "You search the scriptures, because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness to me." The OT speaks and points forward to Christ. And Luke 24:44 "Then he said to them, 'These are my words which I spoke to you, while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the law of Moses and the prophets and the psalms must be fulfilled.'" that He must fulfill all of it. And we know that in Matt 24:35 He says "Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will not pass away." So does the OT contain Jesus' words. John 8:58 Jesus said to them, "Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM." the jews knew exactly that jesus was claiming to be the speaker from the burning bush; they tried to stone Him, the punishment for blaspemy. Ex 3:14 "God said to Moses, 'I AM WHO I AM.' And he said, 'Say this to the people of Israel, "I AM has sent me to you."’" The interesting part of this is this is the same person who gave Moses the Law. The law was Jesus' own words. Will they pass away. No. If only the words of Jesus have authority over us then it apears the the Law does have authority because they are His words. Has the OT been fulfilled in Jesus? No. At least not all of it. Just the parts regarding His first coming. But the parts concerning His second coming have yet to be fulfilled and for every one verse predicting the first coming of Christ there are approximately eight concerning His second. Far more of the OT has not been fulfilled than has. And since it has not been fulfilled yet it is still applicable today. Does this all make sense or am I just off the wall? |
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86 | God is one | Bible general Archive 2 | following him | 121697 | ||
Forgive me for being so abrupt, I am sorry, Your original question to me seemed somewhat loaded. I realy am sorry. But to answer your question this verse is one of the foundation verses for the trinity doctrine. It indicates a plurality in God. One God yet three distinct persons. I dont know if anyone knows why God didn't use the singular in this case. Perhaps It was one of His first hints to us that He is far greater than we can realy comprehend. And that in turn make us realize we are very finite compared to him and have a great need for Him. | ||||||
87 | Jesus waited until 30 to minister | Luke 3:23 | following him | 121571 | ||
The reference you gave in Numbers refers to the levites not the actual priest. The priesthood is from the house of Aaron not the house Kohath. Both are from the tribe Levi, but only Aaron and his sons can hold the priesthood. Besides Jesus is not a priest after the order of Aaron but after the order of Melchizedech. There is great deal of difference between the two. See Heb. 5:6, 8-10; and especailly Heb 7:11-28. | ||||||
88 | 40 Days | Bible general Archive 2 | following him | 121550 | ||
Luke 3:23 states that Jesus was about thirty when He started His ministry. We often take that to mean He was thirty years old. We know the He died in the year 33 AD so that makes Him 33 Years old when He was crucified. But the word thirty in Luke 3:23 actually mean the decade of thiry in other would it realy means He was somewhere in His thirties when He started. The Jews in John 8:57 may be supporting this when instead of saying you are not yet 40 they say you are not yet 50. These guys were adversaries and I can't imagin them giving Jesus the benifit of the doubt. John 8:57 is a weak example though to support Jesus as being 40. Lets go to the history books. We often assume that Christ was born in the year 1 AD; but Herod the great who was the particular Herod involved in the execution (murder) of the children in Bethleham, died in the year 4 1/2 BC. When looking for the child he assertained from the magi that the child was already about two years old. This is supported also by the meaning of the word child in Matt 2. Also the only census to take place near the time Christ was born took place in 7 BC. This was when Christ was born in a manger while his parents were registering for the census. If you count from 7 BC to 33 AD (do not count the year 0 there was no such year) you get 40 years. | ||||||
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