Results 81 - 100 of 156
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: keliy Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | this is a qustion ask for a bible study | James 5:14 | keliy | 213854 | ||
Hi Dale, Welcome. The question has been up for a while so I hope you don't mind if I take a stab at it. In the book of James, the inspired writer exhorts: “Is any among you sick? Let him call for the elders of the church; and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord; and the prayer of faith shall save him that is sick, and the Lord shall raise him up” (5:14, 15). The sick are still among us. And virtually no one questions the fact that the church should have elders today, where qualified men can be found. Should elders, then, in connection with their prayers, be anointing the sick with oil? Though this procedure has not been practiced by churches of Christ in modern times (as a general rule), some are suggesting that it ought to be a part of our ritual. How should this matter be viewed? First, it ought to be noted that this reference to “anointing with oil” (James 5:14) is extremely abbreviated. Nothing is specifically stated in the context as to the design of the practice. Second, there are no contextual indications that this anointing with oil had any sort of spiritual basis that would make it universally applicable or perpetually obligatory. If this was to be a requirement for the universal church for all time, it would seem to be a reasonable expectation that some foundation for the practice might have been supplied. Commentators are sharply divided as to the meaning of the passage. Certainly any view of this text which comes into conflict with other clear biblical information must be rejected. I actually found this info on the internet, so these are not my words, but to read the article in its entirety, please go to: christiancourier.com/articles/118-anointing-with-oil-james-5-14 Blessings, keliy |
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82 | What was the nature of the Jew-Gentile c | Acts 9:3 | keliy | 213632 | ||
This has also been asked at justanswer.com, under homework. -except they charge a fee. keliy |
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83 | What was the nature of the Jew-Gentile c | Acts 9:3 | keliy | 213631 | ||
What, AGAIN?? please see ID# 213597 |
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84 | Manuscripts | 2 Sam 23:2 | keliy | 213628 | ||
Hi fcs375, This can be a very large subject with loyalists on many sides, but I do not see it as a polarizing issue, rather an issue where we can find unity throughout and within the diversity. Also, I have just a scant knowledge in this area, but find it interesting -so I will start with some information as I understand it, then others may expound as they are led. I would like to add that Christianity is not based upon a person's knowledge of biblical facts, but is a relationship with God through His Son Jesus made possible by Jesus' perfect obedience while enduring a shameful execution for not His sins, but ours. It is a religion of faith not logic. Now, basically there are two sources of manuscripts: Alexandrian and Byzantine. These are not original, or "autograph" manuscripts, but are extremely accurate copies of the originals. These manuscripts come from Alexandria, Egypt and Antioch, Syria. The Pentateuch is a later recension of the Hebrew Torah text from around 400 B.C. 'Recension' is the editing or revising of a text through critical analysis. The Septuagint is a Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, from around 280 B.C. The Dead Sea Scrolls consist of roughly 900 documents, that include texts from the Hebrew Bible. These copies were discovered between 1947 and 1956 in several caves on the northwest shore of the Dead Sea. The Latin Vulgate version results from the work of Jerome, who was commissioned by Pope Damasus I in 382 A.D. The Masoretic Text (MT) is the Hebrew text of the Jewish Bible (Tanakh). It defines the books of the Jewish canon, and also the precise letter-text of the biblical books in Judaism, as well as their vocalization and accentuation for both public reading and private study.: A.D. 500. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Masoretic_text) Shalom, keliy |
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85 | NT reference to a miracle near Shunem | Luke 7:14 | keliy | 213552 | ||
Hi pssupple I think the miracle you are concerned with is during Jesus' Ministry in Nain, approximately two miles from Shunem. (Luke 7:11-17) There are obvious parallels to Elisha's miracle in Shunem (2 Kings 4:8-37) Welcome to the Forum. Lord Bless, keliy |
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86 | is a christian allowed to drink | 1 Cor 6:10 | keliy | 213535 | ||
Dear jeh777 We should look at the effects of wine on the individual and not take a Bible verse and apply it to everyone alive. Alcohol is a spirit. A distilled spirit, yes, but it has the power to overtake our own spirit and release certain inhibitions whenever we consume it. Physiologically, the first drink we take will raise our heart rate. Continuing to drink has the opposite effect. There are some people who are able to drink a glass of wine and that is enough for them. For some people it is too much and some it is never enough. God created wine and it is a good thing when used in the right setting. It is an enhancement during wedding celebrations that create memories that last a lifetime for the lucky couple. It is the work of demonic influences that turn all that God created for good into an evil scenario. Some drinkers are more prone to these influences than others. Some are this way thru heredity and some thru environmental influences. Yes, Christians are allowed to drink. But not if they are to hold a position of authority in the church, because it might have the possibility of causing a brother to stumble. It is not wrong to drink wine. I think that Jesus drank wine, but the Bible does not clearly say so. Matt 26:27 says, "And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave [it] to them, saying, Drink ye all of it" and then in verse 29, Jesus says, "I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom." What I understand is that wine was served with meals, but not as we drink it today. It was added to drinking water because it killed water-borne protozoa that cause disease and illness. My opinion therefore is that if Jesus went to someone's house for dinner and wine was served with the meal, Jesus would likely drink the beverage as it was served by the host. Jesus was strong enough to resist the temptation to drink more wine to feel good or as a means to increase joviality. This I suggest may lead to sin, if not a sin in itself. There are some who are able to drink without adverse effect and some who are unable to drink without falling under it's deathly influence. These people contribute to a staggering number of deaths each year, and many thousands each day. I would say that the Bible will never say it is o.k. to drink for these very reasons. However it is not a sin to drink it in small quantities, if it does not cause you or others to stumble into something that causes harm. In moderation, keliy |
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87 | What about these sins? | Matt 16:6 | keliy | 213469 | ||
Hi Robert, Yes we are glad to try to help you understand. I am no expert but I know that we are unable to keep every command in the Bible. -Before I stick my neck out too far I will say that I do not condone Any sin by claiming we will be forgiven of it. We must first start by looking at the whole of Scripture, and not trying to obey any one verse without also considering the discourse that surrounds the passage. For instance, you mentioned Matt 5:32, but prior to that, in vs 29, Jesus tells the crowd: And if thy right eye offend thee, pluck it out... Now would anyone really consider obeying that to the letter? What about the left eye? We are not commanded to go through life maimed or crippled. You also mentioned Mal 2:16. Yes it is true that God hates divorce, God hates divorce because God hates sin. Divorce is a sin and how many are there who fail to live a righteous and holy life that is free from sin? Rom 3:23 answers that: "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God" And are all yet forgiven by God when they repent? Romans 3:24 follows right up with: "Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus" So you see, His commands were not given to save us, but to show that we are unable to justify ourselves through obedience. The Blood of Christ is the only thing that can save us. We are told very plainly that we are justified 'freely' which means that there is no price tag, and there is no amount of effort that we can accomplish to deserve this. Therefore, our obedience to Christ's commands are done in gratitude for what has already been done for us,and not in the hope of any future reward. If you were to pray and seek the Lord I am sure He will hear you. Your answer will come, maybe not at that same moment but be alert and praise Him for His grace and mercy, amen. keliy |
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88 | Did God bless the beasts as well | Gen 1:25 | keliy | 213430 | ||
Hello Azure, I enjoy your questions because they provoke me to explore areas of my musty mind that are not visited often enough (-; As Christians we are called to live according to God's Kingdom standards. These standards are best exemplified in Jesus' Sermon on the mount where He states, in part: "Look at the birds of the air, that they do not sow, nor reap nor gather into barns, and yet your heavenly Father feeds them. "And why are you worried about clothing? Observe how the lilies of the field grow; they do not toil nor do they spin..." Matt 6:26,28 I would presume that you are multilingual, and as such, you know that no language translates perfectly into any other language. Being flexible, language is as much an art as it is science. Let's take a quick look at the verses you mention: And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed (naphach) into his nostrils the breath (neshamah) of life; and man became a living soul (nephesh). Now, I do not want to connect myself with some religious group that proclaims spirituality in animals, but since dogs breathe, do they have their own spirits (ruwach)? I do believe that dogs have a soul (nephesh) because I have observed something in dogs that very much resembles a conscience. We could look next at the word 'blessed' (barak) which means to bring joy to, or to make one happy. But it could also mean 'adore', so I would say yes, God does blessingly adore humans and also animals. I believe God did bless all animals, but not with the same measure that He gave to mankind. He provides for all creatures but He also appointed humans as stewards of the environment that contains animals. As appointed stewards we neglect God when we pollute the land, the water, and devalue the animals. What does that mean in terms of who we are as God's children?" This is a responsibility discussed much too little in the church. "I think we owe it to God to learn as much as we can and make good choices towards His blessed animals. Lord Bless keliy |
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89 | naming and subordination | Gen 3:20 | keliy | 213408 | ||
Shalom Azure, I will try to not only answer the 'academic side' of your post, but I am feeling that there also is an underlying essence that could be addressed. In Gen 2:23, Adam called her "woman" -having being made from "man." (in Hebrew the term for woman is "Isha", a derivative of the name for man "Ish"). That name defined the TYPE of being she was, a "woman". The number 802 in Strong's is actually, ishshah. "woman" He then named her Eve after God expelled them from Eden. (Genesis 3:20) This name he gave her, ( Hebrew, Chava ), means "giver or source of life". It was at this time Adam identified the God-given ROLE that Eve/ Chava would have, namely to be the mother of all humankind. The number 2332 in Strong's is actually, Chavvah, "life giver" btw, The Hebrew (qara) is the word translated as called, and also as named. I would answer your first question in the negative, Was Eve subordinate to Adam only after the Fall, Because God commanded Adam not to eat the forbidden fruit before Eve came on the scene. This would point to Eve's subordination to Adam before the fall. Your second query could be answered in the positive, but with clarification. 'Did Adam's action of giving name to Eve signify his ruling power over her' No, for the reason Adam was doing the same thing he did for all the animals, he named them all. So I am not sure if I agree with your choice of words, 'ruling power'. I would say that God was the ruler, and his directives to Eve would be falling under his submission to God. He was never meant to have a despotic reign. Our God is however a God of order, not chaos. 1Cor 11:3 clears up any confusion as to authority, "But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman [is] the man; and the head of Christ [is] God. So, as Adam was first, that would necessarily place Eve in a position to obey Adam's authority, as being a helper to him, -but. My feelings are that since they were both to become one flesh, This means to me equal, yet separate. So, 'ruling power' just seems a little harsh. In Him, keliy |
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90 | How Holy Is Marriage? | Matt 16:6 | keliy | 213371 | ||
Hi humility, Actually we are urged not to marry a non-christian, by Paul. "Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness? (2Cr 6:14) A Christian's definition of marriage is the union of a man and a woman, under Christ's direction and authority. So marriage can be thought of as three coming together, another sort of trinity. It is also ungodly to (have close) fellowship with a thief or a murderer, if they have not repented of their ways. I have seen Christians get drawn into horrible backslides from which they have not yet recovered. Paul also warns against this. "Ye cannot drink the cup of the Lord, and the cup of devils: ye cannot be partakers of the Lord's table, and of the table of devils. (1Cr 10:21) I would kindly suggest to you that it seems you are comparing apples and oranges. When you mention why we call it Holy Matrimony, I might ask, which translation do you find the word matrimony in? I think the word you meant was marriage. Let us stay within what the Bible says, and not mix in thoughts of men. If we were to do this, we would be diluting God's Word, and straying from His Law. Then Jesus said unto them, Take heed and beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees. (Mat 16:6) Blessings, keliy |
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91 | Samuel serving where he shouldn | 1 Sam 1:1 | keliy | 213369 | ||
Hi MJH, Good question, and good to hear from you again. Samuel's father was Elkanah, a descendant of the tribe of Levi (1 Chronicles 6:26,33). In 1Sam 1:1 in my Bible I have underlined the term “Mount Ephraim”, and in the margin wrote: geography, not genealogy. Lord's blessings. keliy |
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92 | What translation do you use? | Bible general Archive 4 | keliy | 213367 | ||
Hi fcs375 I actually use several different translations. It has been said that the best translation for you is the one that you will read. I prefer to use Study Bibles, and I have a Ryrie Study Bible in KJV from Moody Press, also, a Personal Study Bible in NKJV from Nelson Publishing' also, a Life Application Study Bible in NIV from Tyndale. I use these interchangeagably, and I also use one periodically, -more because I like the vocabulary usage and that is the St Joseph's edition of the catholic Bible. (this one puts a smile on my devout mother's face (o: I keep on hand a CBD Parallel Bible which was very reasonable and contains 4 translations: KJV, NKJV, NIV, and NLT. NLT is a very good one to look at if you prefer more of a thought-for-thought translation, than a word-for-word translation. This one I think is more near a 9th grade reading level, where the St. Joseph's one may be closer to a 13th grade level. Having said all that, whichever translation you choose to accept for personal reading, I would like to suggest to you that you pick up a "Knowing Jesus Study Bible" from Zondervan. It is a 1-Year Study of Jesus in Every Book of the Bible. There are 365 full page insights into the person and work of Jesus. And hundreds of study notes within the text. This is also available in a number of translations. When I was first saved, I read two Bibles together. I had a KJV and a Good News Bible. I read each passage in both versions and then wrote down what the words meant to me. This really opened up my mind to the leading of the Holy Spirit. It is less important which words the translators use, if you pray and ask God for wisdom before you read. Remember, the original words were inspired to the authors by the Holy Spirit. This is what God would want for you as well. Lord Bless, keliy And these words, which I command thee this day, shall be in thine heart: (Deu 6:6) |
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93 | None | Bible general Archive 4 | keliy | 213333 | ||
hello, fcs375, Sorry humbledbyhisgrace I did it again, (oerps). Please check my other post since I inadvertantly attached it to the reply instead of the question. keliy |
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94 | Annoted Synopsis Final Events for Jesus? | John 21:25 | keliy | 213212 | ||
Hi Rose 53 Yes, and don't forget about the final week of our Lord's life. It began with a parade in His honor, and proceeded quickly to His shameful execution. You can read the story on Jesus' triumphant entry into Jerusalem on what we call 'Palm Sunday', in Matthew 21, Mark 11, Luke 19, John 12. The interesting point to me, is the reaction of the Pharisees that were there in the midst of the celebrating crowd. They told Jesus to 'keep them quiet'. Yet, if they knew the Scriptures as well as they claimed to, they would have known enough to be waiting at the gate, on that very day, in anticipation of the fulfillment of Zechariah's prophecy (9:9). This is because of Daniel's prophecy has been mathematically calculated to be fulfilled on that day. This is no different than Daniel recording in vs 9:2 that he understood through Scriptural study the number of years, that would be accomplished in the desolations of Jerusalem. Anyway, what kicks the whole scenario off for me, is the raising of Lazarus from the dead, After which they headed for Jerusalem. Then there are Jesus' farewell sermons, and then Judas agrees to betray Him. Then comes the Last Supper, garden of Gethsemane, and the arrest by the Sanhedrins, after which Peter betrays Jesus 3 times. Then after a shameful execution, where the soldiers mocked Him to His face, Jesus hung dying on the cross. Then He cried out, "My God, My God, Why have you forsaken Me?" (Mat 27:46) It seemed all had abandoned Him. Yet He did not abandon us. His work was not finished. If Jesus did not rise from the dead and claim His victory, then our faith would be like empty grief, based upon a useless myth. But then came an empty tomb. And even though an angel had declared that Jesus had risen, Cleopas was walking on the road to Emmaus with a friend and their faces were 'downcast' (Luke 24:17). But later, Jesus gave His disciples a treat. The last miracle He performed on earth was filling their nets with fish, after an unproductive night of fishing. Then Jesus had breakfast waiting for them. After which He showed His amazing grace to Peter by restoring Him into His service. I do hope this helps Rose, we are all glad to give support and opinions, but we do not do people's homework. The details are all found by reading the Book. (o; Lord Bless, keliy |
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95 | Bible software? | Bible general Archive 4 | keliy | 213125 | ||
Hi akh, Have you been to blueletterbible.org ? It is an online search engine where you either enter in the verse you want, or else up to 5 words from a verse you are looking for. There is also audio and textual commentaries videos, songs, blue letter bible institute, and more. I just received 2 free CDs on Bible study, and a Library and reference guide from cdearth.com/ Blessings, keliy |
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96 | Does All mean All or is the a BUT? | Rom 5:18 | keliy | 213098 | ||
Hi Norton, you ask in your post, 'Is there more to this?' The short answer of course, would be, Yes. The long answer has to do with Paul, because he is known for expressing thought patterns in overly long sentences that run on and take up a string of verses. This is one of such cases. If you were to go backwards through the preceding verses and look only at the first word in each verse you will find what is referred to as 'connecting words'. It also helps to look at the punctuation mark at the end of the prior verse, and you will not usually see a period -if it is before a connecting word. (an example of three connecting words would be: 'and', 'for', 'but') Notice also the beginning of the chapter. The first word is, 'Therefore.' And what that means, is the thought pattern is continued from the preceding passage. (it is another 'connecting word')So, to get a cursory glance at the preceding thought pattern, just look at the verses that are sandwiched between the last two periods of the prior chapter. That is what the 'therefore' is there for. (I did say 'cursory' glance) It also helps to remember that many of the punctuation marks were not there in the original language, but were placed there in the process of translation. Now we can look into your query, (sorry) -I just felt it necessary to lay a proper foundation. That by one man sin entered the world is in 5:12. The first Adam was the sinner that brought on the fallen state that we live in today. No one is free from the sinful nature that is each one of us. Then, in 5:9 we are told that we are saved through (the second Adam), one man, who is Jesus. They are called first and second Adams because they are the only two men in creation without biological fathers. And yes, by the righteousness of the one, the free gift came upon all men. All we have to do is accept the gift to gain possession of it and claim our inheritance forever. Praise God, Amen. Lord Bless, keliy |
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97 | Keliy, can faith be predetermined? | Eph 2:8 | keliy | 213094 | ||
Hi Norton, Your Question can be divided into three parts, I will do my best off the cuff and then we can discuss finer details as others join in. First you said, "If grace is a free gift..." Well, let us first define grace: Grace is enabling power sufficient for progression. Grace divine is an indispensable gift from God for development, improvement, and character expansion. Without God's grace, there are certain limitations, weaknesses, flaws, impurities, and faults (i.e. carnality) humankind cannot overcome. Therefore, it is necessary to increase in God's grace for added perfection, completeness, and flawlessness. (from: wikipedia.org) Then going to God's Word, "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God" (Eph 2:8) This tells us that God empowers us to do what we are unable to do ourselves, and His motivation would be Love. I have also heard 'grace' described as getting what we do not deserve, and 'mercy' as not getting what we do deserve. (at least until we are judged by Him) As far as doing anything to earn this gift, Isaiah 64:6 tells us that all our works of righteousness are nothing but filthy rags. -So what can we sinners actually offer to a holy God, who is all powerful, and has already given to us anything that we might choose to offer Him? Second you said, "knowing that God put us here for a purpose in his plan..." I agree, so not really a question, but what is the purpose of His plan? Why did He place us here, and create the air, and food, and water here solely for our benefit? If I may suggest to you sir, it is not for our benefit but His. In the end we will be giving God the Glory. That is our final destination So, The third part, and the gajillion dollar question has to do with "his decision on who of us he gives to His Son" Well for Him to decide whom to give, means that there is ones that must be withheld. I have often pondered the answer in a parrallel question: Why DID God put that tree in the center of the garden if He knew what would happen? Or, taken a step further, why did He create satan? Why was Judas put in that place at that particular time? The answer has to be that God is sovereign. It is His plan, formulated with His wisdom. There is nothing anywhere to compare on earth, that we can squeeze into our limited consciousness. It is His design and to question His reasons is to put our wisdom against His. I tend to go on a bit, so I will stop, I have to leave for an hour. But, as an off the cuff answer, I will ask others on the Forum to chime in and invest 2 shillings for your edification. God Bless you. keliy |
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98 | Question about Fasting | Matt 15:32 | keliy | 213091 | ||
Hi Loyal357, Basically, fasting means "not having eaten" The above verse in the NASB uses hungry, where the KJV uses fasting. No, it is not impossible to do this at work. There are legitimate fasts however, and not so legitimate ones. If I am unable to get something to eat because I have no money, is it appropriate for me to decide to fast at that point? You could lengthen the fast by not eating before work, or even after. But I have heard there are shorter fasts, such as one meal. Or there is the 'Daniel fast' where he didn't eat food from the king. There is a reason for fasting that is only known within ourselves. That is what makes it so personal and builds our relationship with God, who knows our heart. It is ok to fast at work if your heart is in the right place, and the environment does not hinder you. Sometimes I get so busy at work that I forget to eat. That is a type of fast that I can not offer to God. But If I had a particular reason to make a request before the Lord, and wanted to skip meals and pray along with it during work, that could be considered legitimate. If I were given an hour at work to go for lunch, and I chose to replace physical nourishment with prayer in a quiet spot I would think that the Lord would honor that as me denying myself, and living in the spirit, not my flesh. There are so many aspects to fasting, and many various interpretations. Pray about this and seek the Lord. He will give you the answer that you seek Lord Bless keliy |
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99 | What about the violence in the home? | Phil 3:21 | keliy | 213067 | ||
Hello humility. Have you tried calling the authorities? I would say you should get a temporary separation, living outside the home, or if that doesn't work, a restraining order would be in order for your own protection. Please consider, that I have no way of knowing your circumstance, just speaking from the Word of God. Lord Bless, keliy |
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100 | Why did they oppose Jesus and how? | John 11:46 | keliy | 213053 | ||
Hi Rose, That question could call for a very long answer, but I will keep it short. The Pharisees opposed Jesus for selfish reasons. They were particularly disturbed over his acts of healing people during the Sabbath as well as His claims of divinity. The Pharisees followed Jesus and his disciples trying to catch them breaking the law (Matthew 12:1,2). Some verbally attacked Jesus and his disciples for violating established Jewish tradition (Matthew 15:1,2). Some accused Jesus of violating the Sabbath doing work on that day (Matthew 12:9-14). Some accused Jesus of obtained his power from Satan (Matthew 12:24). They also tried to trap Jesus in his teachings (Matthew 22:15), and supported the plan to kill Jesus "for the good of the nation" (John 11:46-50). But, not all Pharisees were "bad Pharisees " Nicodemus was a Pharisee (John 3:1) Also, “the Jews” seems to apply to all Jews, as if all Jews were opposed to Jesus. This is one way of reading it. The Scribes were in opposition because they "knew the Scripture so well", that they believed it was someone other than Jesus who was to be the Messiah. Saul, of Tarsus opposed Jesus, through the persecution of His Church. Also, satan opposes Jesus, just stating the obvious to get this enemy on the list. The list goes on, -do atheists actually 'hate' Jesus? blessings, keliy |
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