Results 61 - 80 of 109
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Chris Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | Implications of Mat 17:20 vs I Cor 13:2? | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8680 | ||
Mat. 17:20 Vs I Cor 13:2; How are these verses to be interpreted in the light provided by each? Are the actions Paul mentions in I Cor. 13:1-3 possible? | ||||||
62 | Mat 17:20 vs I Cor 13:2? | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8741 | ||
Nolan, let me clarify my question. Jesus says that we need faith as a mustard seed, which was the smallest seed for planting purposes in Judea; I've heard they're almost as small as the head of a needle. But, Paul acts as if faith to move mountains is the most monumentous act of faith, how are we to interpret these Scripture together? Secondly, are the statements Paul makes in I Cor 13:1-3 possible? Notice that Paul states in vs. 2, "If I have the gift of prophecy, and know all mysteries and all knowledge;" but in vs. 9,10 he states, "For we know in part and we prophesy in part; but when the perfect comes, the partial will be done away." So, is it possible to prophecy all mysteries and have all knowledge? If these are not possible, what about the other statements in vs 1 and 3? If vs. 2 is impossible what does that say about the other verses and how do I know if vs. 1 is possible? |
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63 | Steve, more insight please! | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8776 | ||
Steve, Please consider my more detailed question I wrote for Nolan, and let me know if your answer is the same. How does the more clear question affect our interpretation of these Scriptures? |
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64 | Mark, more info please! | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8777 | ||
Mark, You cant leave me hanging! What is so undeniably important? |
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65 | Retxar, additional thoughts please! | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8778 | ||
Retxar, I certainly see your point and for a time held the same view; however, Jesus is comparing the Kingdom of GOD to a mustard seed in your references, whereas, Jesus' rebuke of the deciples in Mat. 17:20 is because they're littleness of faith. And, as I interpret it, to hammer this point home He compares they're faith to the smallness of a mustard seed and says, your faith is infinitely smaller than a mustard seed! If you were to accept my interpretation, any additional thoughts? Please consider the second question as well! |
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66 | I Cor. 13:2 vs 13:9; all knowledge? | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8781 | ||
Steve, I dont understand what you are saying. If one can prophesy all mysteries and all knowledge, why does Paul say we only prophesy in part and know in part? How are these not contradictory? What are you saying about pronouns? |
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67 | Mat 17:20 vs I Cor 13:2? | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8787 | ||
Very impressive, Ray! I think you and I are on the same track when considering these Scriptures. I'll take a little more time to consider your answer, and get back to you! GOD bless! |
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68 | Can man refuse God's invitation? | Luke 14:16 | Chris | 2860 | ||
As I see it, Sam, He did both! You obviously know that the Bible says, "He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world" (Eph. 1:4) 'chose' being the same word for 'election.' But the Word also says, "For He(Jesus) was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you who through Him(Jesus) are believers in GOD" (I Peter 1:20,21) This tells us that the invitation through the blood of Jesus was foreknown before the foundation of the world and we are believers through this invitaion. And, lets remember that GOD has never made a decision without knowing EVERYTHING! Election is great and freewill is great, because there is nothing that could happen that GOD does not know, and if He knows it He uses it to make His decisions! Obviously, I ride the fence on this one!! GOD bless!! | ||||||
69 | Can man refuse God's invitation? | Luke 14:16 | Chris | 2863 | ||
As I see it, Sam, He did both! You obviously know that the Bible says, "He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world" (Eph. 1:4) 'chose' being the same word for 'election.' But the Word also says, "For He(Jesus) was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you who through Him(Jesus) are believers in GOD" (I Peter 1:20,21) This tells us that the invitation through the blood of Jesus was foreknown before the foundation of the world and we are believers through this invitation. And, lets remember that GOD has never made a decision without knowing EVERYTHING! Election is great and freewill is great, because there is nothing that could happen that GOD does not know, and if He knows it He uses it to make His decisions! Obviously, I ride the fence on this one!! GOD bless!! | ||||||
70 | Can man refuse God's invitation? | Luke 14:16 | Chris | 3115 | ||
Yes Sam, but the problem with jumping off a fence is that you often can only see things from one side! As for a verse with invitation and election, how about Mat. 22:14? Now, I know you will ‘elect' to interpret this verse in another way; because, Mat. 22:14 CAN'T be talking about election or else election wouldn't work. But, in an effort to defend my position why don't we go over the entire passage. Mat. 22:1-14: 1 And Jesus answered and spake again in parables unto them, saying, 2 The kingdom of heaven is likened unto a certain king, who made a marriage feast for his son, Jesus compares this parable to the kingdom of heaven, so that would suggest that the king represents GOD and/or Heaven or Eternal Blessing. 3 and sent forth his servants to call them that were bidden to the marriage feast: and they would not come. Bidden is translated in NASB, "invited." Those that ‘were invited' would have been the Jews. Notice that those invited, ‘would not come" implies that those invited made the choice. ‘Servants could be the apostles or perhaps the Holy Spirit (HS is a servant, or a worker for, the kingdom of heaven, so this doesn't necessarily suggest inferiority to GOD; because, He is not specifically mentioned, and all three members of the Trinity are mutually subjected to one another.) either way it doesn't effect the interpretation of the passage. 4 Again he sent forth other servants, saying, Tell them that are bidden, Behold, I have made ready my dinner; my oxen and my fatlings are killed, and all things are ready: come to the marriage feast. Bidden is translated in NASB, "invited." The symbolism suggest reality with the marriage feast represent the marriage supper of the Lamb(debatable, not essential to the meaning). 5 But they made light of it, and went their ways, one to his own farm, another to his merchandise; 6 and the rest laid hold on his servants, and treated them shamefully, and killed them. Notice that ‘they' made light of it; the passage says nothing about them being made to make light of it by another source. 7 But the king was wroth; and he sent his armies, and destroyed those murderers, and burned their city. Possible judgement Jesus spoke about coming upon Jerusalem? A.D. 70, no stone will be left upon another. 8 Then saith he to his servants, The wedding is ready, but they that were bidden were not worthy. Bidden is translated in NASB, "invited." 9 Go ye therefore unto the partings of the highways, and as many as ye shall find, bid to the marriage feast. Bid is translated in NASB, "invite." 10 And those servants went out into the highways, and gathered together all as many as they found, both bad and good: and the wedding was filled with guests. 11 But when the king came in to behold the guests, he saw there a man who had not on a wedding-garment: 12 and he saith unto him, Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding-garment? And he was speechless. Notice, this could not signify election, because, GOD's election must be perfect; no one extra could be invited in, so the most likely interpretation is that the feast includes everyone who was invited, but those who chose (themselves) not to put on wedding clothes were not welcome. 13 Then the king said to the servants, Bind him hand and foot, and cast him out into the outer darkness; there shall be the weeping and the gnashing of teeth. The same description Jesus gives the ‘lake of fire' were those who are not in Christ go for eternal damnation. (Please continue to the next note!) |
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71 | Can man refuse God's invitation? | Luke 14:16 | Chris | 3117 | ||
(Continued) 14 For many are called, but few chosen. If you have a NASB with references, check out the reference for ‘called' (Or invited). The word ‘chosen' is the word Peter uses to describe the ‘elect' in 1 Pt. 1:1-2 and 2:4,9. This word's (1588 Strong's) definition is, 1) picked out, chosen 1a) chosen by God, 1a1) to obtain salvation through Christ 1a1a) Christians are called "chosen or elect" of God 1a2) the Messiah in called "elect", as appointed by God to the most exalted office conceivable 1a3) choice, select, i.e. the best of its kind or class, excellence preeminent: applied to certain individual Christians (Strongs). Paul uses a slight variation of this word (see 1586 Strong's), 1) to pick out, choose, to pick or choose out for one's self 1a) choosing one out of many, i.e. Jesus choosing his disciples 1b) choosing one for an office 1c) of God choosing whom he judged fit to receive his favors and separated from the rest of mankind to be peculiarly his own and to be attended continually by his gracious oversight 1c1) i.e. the Israelites 1d) of God the Father choosing Christians, as those whom he set apart from the irreligious multitude as dear unto himself, and whom he has rendered, through faith in Christ, citizens in the Messianic kingdom: (#Jas 2:5) so that the ground of the choice lies in Christ and his merits only. (Strong's) You can see that they are both considered words that could mean ‘the elect' but 1588 seems to convey the message a bit better. Jesus says, ‘Many are called (invited), few are chosen.' Dare I interpret that to mean, many (all, see vs 9 and 10, ‘and as many as ye shall find, invite to the marriage feast' and ‘servants went out into the highways, and gathered together all as many as they found') are invited but only those who accept the cleansing that comes from the blood of Jesus Christ (wedding garments) are chosen? By the way, these are Strong's definitions not my own, so if he seems to agree with you on the definition of these words that should fuel your argument. I'm not saying I disagree, but I am saying there is more here than any one doctrine can understand or explain. And to ignore that, in my opinion, is a great misinterpretation of scripture. By the by, I could accuse you of the same charge with which you have accused me on 1 Pt. 1:17-21. When people hear the word ‘believe' they assume the person believing is choosing to do so. If you chose to believe something, that means you must have an option to, or in our case hope if you believe it. The only way we as ‘believers' can have saving faith is that Christ Jesus died on the cross, thereby giving us a pathway to redemption and eternal life. This is the only thing that gives us hope, the sacrifice of Christ, so that sacrifice could be interpreted, honestly, to represent an invitation; however, with the presumption of election, ‘believe' means, "what a person does because GOD made them want to do it" now I suggest that this truly is reading things into the text. I certainly do not want to offend you or insult you with this response, and if it is too forward, I apologize. I am hoping to show you that there is more to this issue than meets the eye. I have three ‘Pro-election' Bibles in my home; Scofield, Ryrie, and Believer's (Baptist) and none of them have any defense against this text. The reason I refuse to take sides on this issue (although, I find myself falling on one side or the other often) is because it forces you to interpret certain passages in an illogical manner! Now, GOD may not have given me the wisdom to discern this truth, but He did give me reason, common sense, and the Holy Spirit to interpret His word, and I refuse to ignore the talents He has given me to make up for wisdom I can not discern. I will be happy to verify anything you may have questions about, dealing with this answer, and if I have misrepresented anything, please let me know and I will do my best to rectify the situation. But, I am not going to continue this argument because it truly is never-ending, and I believe it's one of those ‘genealogies' that Paul talks about that do not profit us. I do not think you're wrong! I just don't know that you're completely right. GOD bless! |
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72 | What does it mean to believe. . . ? | John 3:16 | Chris | 2689 | ||
My understanding of the Biblical definition of believe is; to trust in something to the point of acting upon that trust. So, there has to be a change in lifestyle based upon one's claim to believe in Jesus Christ, and there should be a willingness and even an eagerness to obey His commands. I'm no scholar, so I apologize if this definition doesn't float! GOD bless! |
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73 | Easter Bunnies...or Risen Lord? | John 11:25 | Chris | 2760 | ||
I'll try to answer all of them, but I'm not promising! 1.Only in the KJV, correctly translated passover.(Acts 12?) 2.Easter was an idolatrous worship of a goddess for fertility(hence, eggs) (Ezekiel?) 3.I believe it was in April of our calender, but correct me on this one. 4.Mary Magdalene (John 20 or 21) 5.Woman, why are you crying(?) (Jn, next verse) 6.He wasn't limited by flesh, walking through doors and such (fill me in on the rest) (Jn 21) 7.the women, peter, apostles, two men on the road, paul, 500 others (tell me what I missed!)(Not even going to try!) 8.I am certain there were, but I've got no scripture in mind, fill me in! 9.Part of the idolatrous practice of Easter.(Ezekiel?) 10.No! (correct me if wrong!?) Sorry about the lack of more specific references, but that's alot a questions! Plus, I took this off the cuff, so I'm hoping you'll tell me how I did! Thanks Hank! GOD bless!! |
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74 | For Hank and everybody else!! | John 11:25 | Chris | 2771 | ||
Hank, I was hoping you would update your user information. I'd like to get to know the people I converse with better!! You can check mine out (don't expect anything great, though!). GOD bless!! | ||||||
75 | Scriptural answers for John 12:31? | John 12:31 | Chris | 2676 | ||
I would tend to agree with your interpretation, Hugger, see John 16:11. The Holy Spirit comes to convict the world of judgement because the ruler has been judged, so by the time the apostles received the Holy Spirit, this scripture indicates that GOD's judgement of satan was complete. As for Rev. 12, this will happen during the Tribulation (at least that my interpretaion). And, if I am missing the point on Rev. 12, I didn't take much time to study the passage before answering. My focus was on Jn 16. Please, correct me if I'm wrong! Thanks, and GOD bless!! |
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76 | Salvation in other religions? | John 14:6 | Chris | 2161 | ||
The problem with this idea is that you are forgetting what GOD is first and foremost, HOLY! GOD is perfect and unblemished; now, what is the problem with other religions, and why is GOD fist HOLY? Well, GOD is Holy first, because we can only fatham His love by realizing that He is perfect, we are not and have no hope of satisfying His requirement, but He was willing to make a PERSONAL sacrifice to save us! The only way to make the unholy holy is to offer a holy sacrifice. So, GOD had to sacrifice Himself, in the form of His SON, Jesus Christ! That tells us that His love for us is truly AMAZING GRACE! If you don't know how badly you need Grace, you don't have a solid understanding of the Love of GOD! Therefore, if people are not made HOLY by GOD, the only Holy thing in existance, they are not only unacceptable to GOD, but they are, in fact rejecting His love for them. All other religions command their followers to justify themselves, which breeds pride. GOD hates pride and no unholy thing can make itself holy! Last illistration, if God took a test, and of course got a hundred, if he ever excepted anyone who did not have a hundred His grade would drop below a hundred. Or in english, if GOD accepted anyone who was not perfect, He could no longer be perfect!! Jesus Christ is the only way to become HOLY; because, He is the only man with the GOD-nature and the only man with a sinless life! GOD bless!! |
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77 | How Judas Iscariot died? | Acts 1:18 | Chris | 2157 | ||
The gospels DO NOT contradict; however, they do not always complement each other. I see inspiration as, the writer "seeing" the event and writing it in his own words. Example 1:if you and I were writing a story about the same person, and my view was in 20 feet ahead of the person and yours was 20 feet behind the person our stories, at times, would seem to contradict; however both could be accurate. If the subject was in a house and performed a miracle, I would write that we were leaving the area we were in, but you might write that we were entering the area! Both are true, yet they seem to contradict! This particular issue has to do with what I call, "gaps." Example 2: often times in the Gospels and Acts apparent contraditions exist simply because there are gaps in the information. I personally believe that each writer is given only a certain amount of information from the Holy Spirit, others believe that the writer simply chose only certain facts to write about; either way, there is not a contradition only an information gap. Judas probably hung himself on a easily accesible branch and stepped off a cliff that the branch was hanging over. After he died (or before) the branch broke and his body dropped on rocks. In his emotional state it would have been difficult to climb up a tree, tie a knot to a branch, tie the nuse, slip is over his head, and jump out of the tree. All that for an explanation as easy as this, sorry! Hope it helped!! God bless! |
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78 | When was the Holy Spirit first given? | Acts 2:1 | Chris | 2156 | ||
Very good question! The answer is difficult, and I don't claim to be correct; all answers to this question are subjective because the Word does not provide it's own anwser. My belief is that a true interpretation of scripture cannot assume that Jesus was only promising the Holy Spirit in the gospel of John; because, the verb, "breathed" seems to clearly suggest that our Lord actually gave the apostles something. Also, John is clearly referencing Creation when GOD, "breathed" life into man. Jesus breathing on the apostles starts a new Creation, so to speak. Considering that the apostles did in fact receive the Holy Spirit, I am persuaded to believe that the Holy Spirit was given to PROTECT the apostles until they were, "given power from on high" Luke 24:49. I believe it would be foolish for us to believe that the apostles could resist the devil without Christ for 50 days or 1 day or hour! Throughout the gospels we see the apostles fail, although they have just seen a miracle. So, in the gospel of John the Holy Spirit was given for PROTECTION, and in the book of Acts (40 or 50 days later?) the Holy Spirit was given for POWER! Hope this helps! God bless!! |
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79 | Holy Spirit's power of Conviction | Rom 5:6 | Chris | 5748 | ||
Only this section of your comment will be addressed: "The problem here is that you are taking it as axiomatic that unregenerate man in any way has the ability to "choose God," that he is morally free to do so. Please show us in Scripture where it declares that man's will is free in this regard." Man's will is certainly not 'free' but GOD did send the Holy Spirit. This debate is old and tired! I always get into it because people actually think they are 'wise' enough to understand the intricate workings of GOD, and perhaps I am hoping someone out there is wise enough. But usually people simply misinterpret Scripture in an attempt to feel like they understand. I hope you will show me the proof I am in need of! See John 16:8-11, "And, He (Holy Spirit), when He comes, will convict the world concerning sin and righteousness and judgment; concerning sin, because they do not believe in Me; and concerning righteousness, because I go to the Father and you no longer see Me; and concerning judgment, because the ruler of this world has been judged. Now, if the HS convicts 'the world' it's safe to assume that 'the world' includes everyone; but I know you don't assume that! So, if the HS convicts 'the world' and the ruler of 'this world' is judged, what part of 'the world' did satan not rule over before he was judged? As I am sure you know, Rom 3:10-18 states clearly that we are(were) all under sin, doesn't that mean we were under the control of satan? I'm sure you know that these are the same exact words for 'world' in the Greek text, so there is no play on words here, at least there is no evidence of it in the Greek. So, if the HS convicts the world concerning sin, and if the world means everyone, doesn't everyone have the power, through the Holy Spirit, to choose Jesus Christ? |
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80 | Holy Spirit's power of Conviction | Rom 5:6 | Chris | 5775 | ||
Does the fact that the Holy Spirit will convict the world of sin mean that everyone will be enabled to accept Christ? Well, in John 14:17 says that "the world cannot receive [Him], because it does not see Him or know Him., but you know Him because He abides with you and will be in you." Therefore, the world is unable to receive the Spirit, so that classifies the "world" in a different category than the disciples, whom Jesus is addressing. It says that the world does not see Him, doesn't even know Him! No the world cannot ‘receive the Holy Spirit' if they do not know Jesus Christ. Receiving the Holy Spirit is the regeneration or the rebirth of the Christian, it is not, in my opinion, the ability of the HS to convict a sinner of their need for Christ. At this time the HS had not come to the world; therefore, NO ONE but the disciples could have received Him because only His disciples had accepted Him as their personal Savior, so yes, our Lord would consider the world different than the disciples. I personally consider the world different than the Church, but not because GOD decided to take me and not another; because I have been regenerated by the Holy Spirit. In John 15:18, the "world" will hate the disciples, just as it hates Christ. In the next verse, we see that the disciples are "not of the world," that Christ CHOSE them, and as a result, the world hates them. Therefore, we see reinforced a clear division between the world and the ones who are called by God. In verse 26 we see that the Spirit will testify about Christ with the disciples, but there is no indication that everyone will be free to accept the Spirit's testimony. In fact, Christ has just promised them the opposite from the world. Yes, the ‘world' will hate the disciples, but I consider this to be because Jn 3:19-20, "This is the judgment, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the Light, for their deeds were evil. For everyone who does evil HATES the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed." (Emphasis mine) The ‘world' is not regenerated the disciples are, yes they're different. The twelve certainly were chosen, we will discuss this shortly. In verse 15:26 who will the Spirit testify to? "When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, that is the Spirit of truth who proceeds from the Father, He will testify about Me, and you will testify also, because you have been with Me from the beginning." It does not sound like the Spirit is testifying to the disciples, because the disciples are to do the same type of testifying! Could it be that the HS and the disciples would be testifying to non-believers? |
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