Results 61 - 80 of 89
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: wordoer Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | 2 Chronicles 7:14 | 2 Chr 7:14 | wordoer | 88282 | ||
Hello Kahari, I believe it means these people will literally be "called by His name", And yes , it is saying they would be named after God. I believe the name is "Christian"! I tried to look up the suffix "-ian", I was referred to, "-an", which means "of", or "belonging to". Of or, belonging to who, belonging to Christ, or "Christ I belong to". A powerful statement is made when one professes they are Christian. Let us be worthy of our calling and humble ourselves before the Living God, seek His face and turn from our wicked ways. wordoer |
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62 | Who is compelling us when we sin? | 1 Sam 13:12 | wordoer | 80546 | ||
Hello, It is right there in the verse, "I", "I forced myself". It is the law of sin (the flesh) Paul speaks of in Romans 7:4-6, as becoming dead to the law. wordoer |
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63 | friend who dies to save the other? | 1 John 3:16 | wordoer | 76882 | ||
Hello hooper, When I first read your question ,I thought of one I heard out of out of Proverbs,in the King James version ,I heard it a long time ago, couldn't find that one (directly related, different wording), but I found this one in the NASB. John 15:13 "Greater love has no one than this, that one lay down his life for his friends. wordoer |
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64 | Hezekiah's invitations? | 2 Chronicles | wordoer | 76880 | ||
Hello CMOORE, It appears at first hearing the proclamation, they laughed the messengers to scorn and mocked them, I was just thinking on this and what a stupid response that was considering what the King had said to them, that the Lord would have compassion on their sons and brothers- how kind that would have been for them to entreat the Lord that those taken captive might return to possess their land (2Chronicles 30:6-9). This proclamation came to them shortly after Sennacherib King of Assyria had conquered the Northern kingdom and deported their fathers and brothers out of the land, the scripture goes on to say in verse 11 of Chapter 30, 2 Chronicles, “Nevertheless, some men of Asher, Manasseh, and Zebulun humbled themselves and came to Jerusalem”. I am thinking it was a small number of men that came, considering that the nation was made up of ten tribes of Israel, and only some men of these three tribes came. In further answering your question concerning the response of the Northern Kingdom, technically it was not a kingdom anymore, In fulfillment of the prophesy made in Hosea 1:4 (He says He will put an end to the kingdom, but not the house of Israel). (Scripture also indicates He divorced the House of Israel and that they were dispersed), which was the Northern Kingdom of Israel, they were His people, then they were not His people, they would later be called sons of the Living God, are these Christians?), also verses 9-10. The Southern Kingdom of Judah, I believe was being obedient to their King in his desire to turn the wrath of the Lord (which they had seen with their own eyes v.8) away from Judah and Jerusalem, 2Chronicles 29:10. wordoer |
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65 | What was the name of Lot´s wife? | Gen 19:26 | wordoer | 73642 | ||
Her name is not mentioned in the Bible, however it is recorded in the book of Jasher(Jashar- in the NASB) , This extra-Biblical work is refered to twice in the Holy Scriptures, specifically in, Josh 10:13, 2 Sam 1:18. In Jasher 19:52: "...and Ado the wife of Lot looked back to see the destruction of the cities..." wordoer |
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66 | Parkinson disease and healing | James 5:14 | wordoer | 72797 | ||
They should follow the instructions in James 5:14-16, which is for today and it works, If you can find a man with faith that believes it. I have also heard a testimony on glycostory.com, just type in "parkinson" and follow instuctions to recieve the link, to listen to the story. The man seems to have been healed, or at least has great relief of the symptoms. I hope the information may be of help to you. You stated that the people you talked to, had known others who were healed of their dis-eases. I was wondering what diseases and how were they healed ? If you know, and it is appropriate for this forum. wordoer |
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67 | what was the name of Lots wife?? | Luke 17:32 | wordoer | 59900 | ||
Hello, Her name is not mentioned in the Bible, however it is recorded in the book of Jasher(Jashar- in the NASB) , This extra-Biblical work is refered to twice in the Holy Scriptures, specifically in, Josh 10:13, 2 Sam 1:18. In Jasher 19:52: "...and Ado the wife of Lot looked back to see the destruction of the cities..." wordoer |
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68 | Seventy half brothers or 69? | Judg 9:5 | wordoer | 51568 | ||
Hello SisterM, I am using an NAS reference Bible to get this information and my memory. According to Judges 8:30 Gideon/Jerubaal had 70 sons who were "direct descendants". In verse 31, Abimelech was the product of his Shechemite (Caananite) concubine (this is in addition to the 70 direct descendants). Every instance in chapter 9 where the seventy brothers are refered to, references back to Judges 8:30 (those direct descendants). In Judges 9:2, they are inquiring about the seventy ruling over them or rather one man (Abimelech),in verse 4 they gave Abimelech seventy pieces of silver (ref. to Duet. 27:25, a bribe to strike down an innocent person, ( this is the "violence" refered to in Judges 9:24) So their intention was to kill all seventy brothers. The word "killed" in verse 5 is very interestingly referenced to 2 Kings 11:1,2. Which speaks of Joash being stole away and hidden when the kings sons were being put to death. And so Jotham escaped and was hid in Judges 9:5. I conclude that 69 of the brothers were killed. I also reason that their "intention" to kill the seventy brothers, was just as bad as commiting the act, 1 John 3:15. I hope this helps you, wordoer |
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69 | Why should I study the old testement? | 1 Cor 10:11 | wordoer | 50343 | ||
Hello bluestar, Every time the New Testament says about things that are "written", It is refering to the Old Testament, these were the only writings they had at that time. The New Testament was not assembled until a later time in history, well after Jesus' days on the earth. Since our God doesn't change, Heb 13:8 Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever. And the things written were about Him. Luke 24:44 Now He said to them, "These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled." We do well to study The Old Testament for understanding. Some don't, and as a result twist the scriptures to have other meaning,as Peter spoke of Paul's writings in 2 Pet 3:16 as also in all his letters, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which the untaught and unstable distort, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures, to their own destruction. Acts 24:14 "But this I admit to you, that according to the Way which they call a sect I do serve the God of our fathers, believing everything that is in accordance with the Law and that is written in the Prophets; Luke 24:27 Then beginning with Moses and with all the prophets, He explained to them the things concerning Himself in all the Scriptures. I was looking for a scripture in the New Testament that said something like - except they look to the law and the prophets there is no light in them- I may be wrong , I can't find it right now ? maybe someone else knows what I am refering to. Also when you see small capital letters in the New Testament, It is quoting from the OT, A reference Bible will direct you to that OT scripture, so you can go back and read and have a greater understanding of what is being said in the NT. I pray that this helps you, wordoer |
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70 | I need a Dictionary of origen of words. | Bible general Archive 1 | wordoer | 49492 | ||
Hello Brethren, You may want to look into the Oxford English Dictionary , this gives a good word history (seems to only have examples dating back to 1300's of different literature where the word appears), word usage and changes at different times through history, . I obtained a 2 volume compact edition (it is micro-printed and you use a magnifier to read it), it is cheaper than the full sized print consisting of approximately 20 volumes. I was actually suprised to find such a work and feel it would be a valuable addition to anyones library. As for the Hebrew and Greek as used to translate the scripture (into English), I would suggest a Bible concordance (such as Strong's) which would show the root meaning (origin) of a Bible word, and is number coded in its dictionary to easily find the referenced word in question. As I look back on your question it seems a concordance would better fit you. Word origin found in John 1:1. wordoer |
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71 | Can you help me with some research? | Luke 23:56 | wordoer | 43656 | ||
Hello scribe, I keep the sabbath by resting one day for every six days that I work. During the sabbath I refrain from doing any physical labor such as house cleaning, yard work, ect.. I will cook on those days, but generally I rest and read from scripture or do studies. I was thinking recently about people who don't keep the sabbath, and wondered if they do eventually have to make up their days of rest, for example , I know a man who has worked for many years and didn't take a whole day of rest in all that time and this past July he had to have a quadruple by-pass operation, and he rested for many months after that, sort of a forced period of rest. That was just a thought I had. wordoer |
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72 | Why would someone get rebaptised? | Bible general Archive 1 | wordoer | 41937 | ||
Hello comptong, Here is your Biblical example of rebaptism, Acts 19:1 It happened that while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul passed through the upper country and came to Ephesus, and found some disciples. Acts 19:2 He said to them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?" And they said to him, "No, we have not even heard whether there is a Holy Spirit." Acts 19:3 And he said, "Into what then were you baptized?" And they said, "Into John's baptism." Acts 19:4 Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in Him who was coming after him, that is, in Jesus." Acts 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. Acts 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they began speaking with tongues and prophesying. Acts 19:7 There were in all about twelve men. The purpose. I don't know why your church rebaptizes, But, the men mentioned above were rebaptized because they had not recieved the Holy Spirit, (they were of another baptism). And to tell you the truth I never saw this until now and that is Paul equating baptism with belief. The answer is found back in Acts chapter 2 (John's baptism was of repentance, as Paul stated above). Now you should check this out for yourself, Acts 2:38, the scripture says that Peters example of baptism was for the remission (forgiveness) of sins. Then you recieve the gift of the Holy Spirit. They didn't recieve the Holy Spirit with John's baptism. Or when they believed and prayed the sinners prayer and asked the Lord to forgive their sins, But they recieved it after they had their sins washed away. Remember that John's baptism was before Jesus' sacrifice was made on the cross, putting the new covenant into effect. Maybe this is why 1 Peter 3:21 says, baptism now saves you. The example of the baptism in Acts 2:38 is the example we should follow, not baptised into church membership or any reason other than for the forgiveness of sins. It is how you enter into the new covenant. 1 John 3:4 Everyone who practices sin also practices lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness.( transgressing Gods law ). Repent, Believe (be baptized) in Him and be saved, remember you will recieve the gift of the Holy Spirit. I hope this will help you. wordoer |
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73 | Two Creation Stories? | Gen 1:1 | wordoer | 41670 | ||
Hello, I just started reading a book on this subject. I will hit on a couple of the things briefly just to give you an idea. What I have been able to glean thus far is that The second chapter of Genesis is not a retelling of the first chapter. God (Elohiym) is plural (signifing the Godhead)in the creation account of Genesis 1, In verses 27-30 it is saying that He created them male and female -at the same time, and that the word "image" comes from the Hebrew word "tselem" which means to "shade". That word comes from the root word "tsalal" meaning to be dark, shadowing. Also there were no carnivores at this time in creation, as God instructed the beast and fowl to eat the green herb, ect,. In Genesis 2 God is know as Yahovah which is singular in form, in verse 5 of chapter 2, God says "there was not a man to till the ground" the account goes on - Adam is formed , not commanded to be fruitful and multiply,or to replenish the earth , but put in the garden for the reason of keeping and dressing it. Then He gave Adam the law, He was not to eat of a certain tree, The male and female of Gen 1 had no such instruction. In the account of forming a helpmeet for Adam the beasts of the field and the fowls of the air occur before God took Adams rib to form Eve. So the position they are taking is that the 2nd chapter is not a retelling of the 1st chapter and God is recognized differently in the separate accounts. I looked in Strongs concordance and it gives both accounts of God as number "430" Elohiym, However the Interlinear Bible does show a difference, and gives God Jehovah "3068" in the case of Gen 2:5. It does appear to me that there is a difference in the two accounts in question. I hope this helps you, wordoer |
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74 | What do we know about Satan? | Ps 109:6 | wordoer | 40248 | ||
Hello Hank, The following comes from page 8 of a booklet entitled, "expose' of a pagan doctrine THE BIBLE DEVIL AND SATAN DEFINED". The booklet is keyed to the KJV but does an excellent scripturally based job of exposing corruption. "satan", is a Hebrew word transliterated into the English language and means "adversary". The word is often properly translated in that way, in certain Bible passages, but belief in a supernatural devil caused biased translators to render it as Satan in other parts of the Bible. An example of this bias is found in Psalms 109:6 which reads: "Set thou a wicked man over him: and let Satan stand at his right hand." The bias even extended to turning Satan into a proper noun with a capital initial. Yet the same Hebrew word is rendered "adversaries" in verses 4, 20, 29, of the same chapter! It should be so rendered in verse 6. In fact, in the RSV the verse reads: "Appoint a wicked man against him; let an accuser bring him to trial." Another gem I found in this book is this, "The Hebrew word Satan should be rendered consistently as adversary wherever it occurs; in no instance does it relate to a fallen angel." (inside the front cover) SATAN is a Hebrew word, signifying "to oppose", "to be an adversary." The word is translated "adversary," "resist","withstand",... I will add that our Lord called Peter, "satan" Matt. 16:23 and Mark 8:33 and holds true to my repentant view that it is our or man's own fleshly and earthly desires and not the will of the Father which makes any of us an adversary to God, meaning those who desire anything but His will or in opposition to it. I pray this is the information you desired, wordoer |
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75 | Divorce or Putting Away ? | Matt 5:32 | wordoer | 39245 | ||
Hello farout, Yes, He is talking about a woman who has been "put away", The act of "putting away", I basically see as kicking the wife out the door. This was the problem of old, that the men would "put away" their wives without giving them a writ of divorce, Which did not free the woman from law of the marriage covenant, causing her to commit adultery if she was joined to another man.Duet 24:4. The translation is lacking in this and should have been translated, "whoever marries a put away woman commits adultery". NASB update has side note that reads "sent away, and sends away" respectively for the words "divorce" as given in this verse. When the woman is given the written certificate of divorce she is freed from the law of the marriage, subsequently commiting no sin if she marries another man, however she cannot go back to her former husband after she has been joined to another man. The King James has Mal 2:16 as "putting away" I would say God doesn't hate "divorce" ,But , He does hate "putting away". God Himself was/is a divorcee, I guess He didn't like it much,But it was necessary and worked into His greater plan. If you are "put away"- still under law of marriage. If you are "divorced"- you have written documentation fulfilling the law of the divorcement. wordoer |
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76 | Help me understand Rev. 19:16 clearly. | Bible general Archive 1 | wordoer | 39146 | ||
Hello, Here is a little bit more. Lev 19:28 'You shall not make any cuts in your body for the dead nor make any tattoo marks on yourselves: I am the LORD. Here is the command from the King of Kings and Lord of Lords. This verse you refer to in Revelation is speaking of the One that made the statement in Leviticus 19:28. It could never be a tattoo. God can not sin, or violate His own Law. A king that doesn't follow his own law would not be much of a king. Although it must be very enticing when all your "friends" are getting tattooed and holes poked in all parts of their bodies. God says, "DON"T DO IT"! Hope that is helpful, wordoer |
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77 | Raven and John Reformed, Baptism? | Bible general Archive 1 | wordoer | 36581 | ||
Hello Cyclist, I believe the thief on the cross was excused from baptism for the following reason, When Jesus was here on the earth He had authority to forgive sins. As an example I cite these scriptures, Matt 9:5 "Which is easier, to say, 'Your sins are forgiven,' or to say, 'Get up, and walk' 6 "But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins"--then He *said to the paralytic, "Get up, pick up your bed and go home." also a second and third witness of the same account , Mark 2:10 , Luke 5:24 So was it easier for the Master to say your sins are forgiven, or this day you will be with me in paradise? hope this is helpful, wordoer |
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78 | Why can God kill when he tells us not to | Bible general Archive 1 | wordoer | 36004 | ||
TBTG This is the actual commandment. Ex 20:13 "You shall not murder. Murder is wrong because it is infringing on someones life, As in Life ,Liberty and Property. Now you could go and read about "the avenger of blood", in Numbers chapter 35, to get a better understanding of murder, manslayers and citys of refuge, and things concerning that aspect of the law. This is relatively the same as when God kills for the purpose of cleansing the land as He did in the time of Noahs flood. These are the wicked people, just as in the case of murderers, and they are to be executed for polluting the land with innocent blood. If any man spills the blood of man , By man shall his blood be shed. If you kill the murderer it has a cleansing effect on the land, where the victims blood defiles the land. Jer 16:18, Ps 106:38. Gen 6:9 These are the records of the generations of Noah. Noah was a righteous man, blameless in his time; Noah walked with God. Our God is a righteous and just God, and He is able to judge the land and to purge out the wicked. It is His land and He keeps His Word. Hope that helps to answer your question, wordoer |
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79 | First cousin marriages today? | Gen 28:2 | wordoer | 34881 | ||
According to the account in Genesis 28, There is no restiction against marrying a first cousin. Rebecca sent Jacob to take a wife from the Daughters of Laban her brother. God certainly does not condemn it. The restrictions in Leviticus 18 are clear, that relations with a close blood relative are forbidden. The examples are listed Father, Mother, Sister, Brother, Aunt, Uncle, ect... It suprised me because I had always heard and believed that marriage is resticted to the relation of second cousins, Meaning that it was okay to marry your second cousin. I see no other laws forbidding marriage to first cousins. Also the accounts in the scripture about the Daughters of Lot having relations with Lot resulted in the Moabites and the Ammonites (genetic defects) which were considered wicked lineage (Caanan also). My point would be if Jacobs union to Rebecca had not pleased God, He would have condemned their children and not blessed them. Hope that helps, wordoer |
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80 | Plese give some history on Boaz | Gen 21:12 | wordoer | 34000 | ||
I have studied this a little, and have come to find that in the days of old people were known by their occupation, Or that of their Father, Along with their given (first) name. So if Boaz' Father would have been a Shoe maker, He would be known as Boaz Shumacher, or some derivation. And likewise with other occupations or status in society, Sons of Isaac would have been know as Isaacsons, Isacksons, or Saxons (Genesis 21:12). So in days of old those "Last", names were really not necessary. Hope that helps you. wordoer |
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