Results 61 - 80 of 242
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: ebrain Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181383 | ||
Could Jesus sin? I am concluding that this question is in respect of His human nature, rather than His Divine nature. God cannot sin, but humans can.. Jesus did not sin, but I am of the opinion that He could have. I am well aware that this is a controversial subject. but I believe that Scripture indicates that Jesus was able to sin, for example He more than once said "Not My will but Thine be done".. If it were not possible for Jesus the man, to exercise His will independently of what His Father wanted, then what He said was a lie, and one thing that you can be assured of is that Jesus is not a liar. He was tempted in all points as we are, Hbr 4:15 "For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin". The only difference between the real humanity of Jesus and our humanity, is that we were conceived in sin, and He was not, see Psa 51:5 "Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, And in sin my mother conceived me". (NKJ) We come into this world having a very powerful predisposition to sin, whereas Jesus who was conceived by the Holy Spirit and was therefore sinlessly perfect, did not have this desire to do that which is evil, as we do, but was like Adam before the fall. I would like to draw your attention to the Scripture verses bellow, and wish to comment as follows. Mat 26:53 "Or do you think that I cannot now pray to My Father, and He will provide Me with more than twelve legions of angels? Mat 26:54 "How then could the Scriptures be fulfilled, that it must happen thus?" What is the point of Jesus saying this, if it was impossible for Him to frustrate His Fathers will. The fact that He didn't do so is not the point, He is saying in these verses that He had the ability to disobey His Father, and that would have been sin. For what it is worth my understanding that Jesus could as a man have sinned, but did not do so , causes me to hold Him in much higher regard than if it were impossible for Him to have done so. In other words it is not a problem for me, but in fact causes me to rejoice, and be exceeding glad that my Saviour is such a wonderful, brave , and courageous person. |
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62 | Whats your understanding of the Godhead | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 180818 | ||
My understanding of the Godhead is that it is the same as the Trinity, this word apears at Col 2:9, which reads Col 2:9 For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily; This means that in the body of our Lord Christ Jesus their dwells all there is of God the Father, all there is of God the Son, and all there is of God the Holy Spirit. Don't try to understand it, just believe it. The Lord bless you. Edwin. (ebrain) |
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63 | how can faith be defined. | Heb 11:6 | ebrain | 180623 | ||
I can think of no better verse to describe "Faith", as seen from God's point of view, than Heb 11:6, Hbr 11:6 But without faith it is impossible to please Him, for he who comes to God must believe that He is, and that He is a rewarder of those who diligently seek Him. Note that the verse is in two parts, the first part is easy, even the devils believe, and tremble, see James 2:19. It is the second part that is the difficult bit. Exercising faith, is not "I hope it will happen", but "I know it will hapen". |
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64 | How are the three days calculated? | Matt 28:1 | ebrain | 180621 | ||
----- Original Message ----- From: Edwin Brain To: pabrain@indent.co.uk Sent: Monday, August 28, 2006 1:56 PM Subject: A problem with time. Our Lord Jesus said that he would be in the grave for 3 days and 3 nights ie 72 hours, however, the Gospel accounts indicate a period of only 37 hours at most. Can any one help me resolve this. Thank you Edwin. Please give the scripture verse where Jesus said three days and three nights, and also state how you arrived at 37 hours. Thank you for your questions. For 3 days and 3 nights, please read Matt Ch 12 v 40. The 37 hours or thereabouts is arrived at as follows. Read the 4 Resurrection accounts and you will find that our Lord rose from the dead at around dawn on the first day of the week i.e. 12 hours from the end of the Sabbath, then there are 24 hours during the Sabbath, and may be up to an hour on Friday. In that part of the world, and at that time of the year sunset, and sunrise were close to 6 pm and 6 am. Jesus was on the cross from 9 am to 3 pm. Now read John Ch 19 v 31. There was about 3 hours to take down his body, prepare it for burial, transport same to the tomb, replace the stone, and seal it. I hope this helps you to understand my reasoning. May the Lord bless, and keep you safe. Edwin Brain. I am disappointed that I have not so far had any help with this question. Allow me to suggest a possible solution. First of all look at Exodus Ch 12 vs 1-20. and also Leviticus Ch 23 vs 4-8. Now what are the salient points. The Lamb is to be selected on the 10 th day, but not killed until the 14 th day, why 4 days?, answer later on. The Passover continues on into the Feast of unleavened bread which is a feast of 7 days duration, with a Sabbath at each end. Now what does this teach me about the week in which our Lord allowed himself to be killed. That there are 2 Sabbaths in this week, the Sabbaths are at the start, and finish ie the first, and last, the alpha, and omega. speaking of the Lord God himself. what is leaven but a picture of sin, therefore no leaven indicates sinlessness, what is the duration of this feast, 7 days, what does 7 indicate, Divine perfection ie sinless perfection.. So the lamb points forward to the time when the Lord God himself, who is sinlessly perfect will lay down his life during a week which has 2 Sabbaths in it. Now let us see if the Gospel accounts indicate a 2nd Sabbath that week. Look first at John Ch 19 v 31. "for that Sabbath was a special Sabbath" why? special, could this suggest an additional Sabbath that week, well now look at Matt Ch 28 v 1. Here is a problem as most English translations read Sabbath, but have a look at the Greek text, and you will find that it is a plural noun ie Sabbaths. Now if we assume that Friday was the other Sabbath, and move the crucifixion back to Thursday, then we have 3 nights, but only some 61 hours, and still not 72 hours, however if you use Divine time measurement, and not human time measurement, ie "There was evening,and there was morning one day" and I can find 3 evenings, and 3 mornings then I will have 3 days. There is Thursday evening, Friday evening, and Saturday evening, Friday morning, Saturday morning, and Sunday morning 3 days. Now what about that 4 days I mentioned earlier, if our Lord was killed on Thursday, then what day is 4 days earlier, Palm Sunday of course. The Triumphal Entry and what else was also happening on that same day, every family in the land was choosing the lamb to be killed, and now that Jesus had presented himself to the Leaders of the Nation they had four days in which to examine him to see if there was any blemish, or spot, and when they could find none kill him. QED, I rest my case. Isn't it great being a Christian. May the Lord bless you all ,and keep you safe. Edwin Brain. |
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65 | 1st John 3:9 | 1 John 3:9 | ebrain | 180588 | ||
Hi Dima. The problem in understanding this verse is that in a number of popular modern Bibles, additional words have been inserted which alter the meaning of the original Greek. For example I give below the , "New International Version". 1Jo 3:9 No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God's seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. A far better translation is found in the "New King James Version", which reads 1Jo 3:9 Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God. The reason why modern translators like those of the NIV, do this is in an attempt to reconcile the apparent contradiction between this verse, and the other verses in the same letter at Ch 1:8 through Ch2:2. Te facts of the matter are that John is here dealing with two different parts of the same person. The Christians "old nature", (which can do nothing but sin) in one part of his letter, and the Christians "new nature", (which cannot sin) in the other part of his letter. This is perhaps better explained by Paul in Romans 7:14-25. Rom 7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual, but I am carnal, sold under sin. Rom 7:15 For what I am doing, I do not understand. For what I will to do, that I do not practice; but what I hate, that I do. Rom 7:16 If, then, I do what I will not to do, I agree with the law that it is good. Rom 7:17 But now, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me. Rom 7:18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh) nothing good dwells; for to will is present with me, but how to perform what is good I do not find. Rom 7:19 For the good that I will to do, I do not do; but the evil I will not to do, that I practice. Rom 7:20 Now if I do what I will not to do, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me. Rom 7:21 I find then a law, that evil is present with me, the one who wills to do good. Rom 7:22 For I delight in the law of God according to the inward man. Rom 7:23 But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members. Rom 7:24 O wretched man that I am! Who will deliver me from this body of death? Rom 7:25 I thank God--through Jesus Christ our Lord! So then, with the mind I myself serve the law of God, but with the flesh the law of sin. Part of this last veres 25, might be amplified as, "So then,with the mind (my new nature) I myself serve the law of God, but with the flesh (my old nature) the law of sin. I do hope that this will be of help to you. May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. Edwin. (ebrain) |
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66 | who is jesus christ! | Col 1:15 | ebrain | 180561 | ||
He is the one in whom the Trinity resides, that is to say all there is of the Father, all there is of the Son, and all there is of the Holy Spirit, dwelling within the body of our Lord Jesus Christ. That is who Jesus Christ is, see bellow. Col 2:9 For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily. |
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67 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | ebrain | 180559 | ||
All you should concern yourself with is the fact that it is impossible for God to sin. | ||||||
68 | What happens immediatly after you die? | 2 Corinthians | ebrain | 180338 | ||
Further to my previous post, this additional information may be of interest to you. When christians die, they go to the place of departed spirits some times refered to as "Abraham's bossom", or "Paradise", neither of which is Heaven. They enter a state of being "Asleep in Jesus", alive, but unaware of anything, including the passage of time, see 1 Thes 4:14, only when they get their resurrection bodies do they wake up, and return with Jesus who takes them for the first time into Heaven. As they are not aware of the passage of time, all of them (including the thief) think that they have only just died, which is why Jesus was able to say to the thief, "This day", because, as far as he is concerned, it is still this day. I hope that this is of help to you. God Bless. Edwin. |
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69 | What happens immediatly after you die? | 2 Corinthians | ebrain | 180336 | ||
Firstly lets deal with the unconverted, they do not have a spirit, only a body, and a soul. The body decomposes, is buried, or is creamated, whilst the soul goes to the place of departed spirits to await judgement. For the Christian it is the same for the body, but the spirit/soul goes to be with Jesus, see 1st Thes Ch 4 vs 13-18. 1st Cor Ch 15 vs 50-58. But read this in the context of the whole of Ch 15. I hope that this is of some help to you, if it raises more questions, then just ask. May the Lord bless you. Edwin Brain. |
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70 | what is the wages of sin? | Rom 6:23 | ebrain | 180226 | ||
Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin [is] death; but the gift of God [is] eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. |
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71 | Will there be marriages in heaven? | Matt 22:30 | ebrain | 180121 | ||
If you are a Christian, then you are part of the bride of Christ, that is you will be married to Him, how then can you possibly be married to anyone else? | ||||||
72 | What did Jesus mean? | Bible general Archive 3 | ebrain | 179752 | ||
Jesus is quoting from Psalm 41:9, and is referring to Judas who was to betray Him. | ||||||
73 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179702 | ||
It is important to read the whole passage from v 29 to v 40, in order to see the typology of this incident. Jephthah's daughter was his only child, and was therefore his "firstborn", she was also a virgin, typical of purity. The expression "two months" is mentioned three times, (in verses 37, 38, and 39). Three draws our attention to the Trinity, and two to the second person of the Trinity, ie, Jesus of whom this girl is a type, as she was prepared to lay down her life to save her father from breaking his vow to the LORD, and the consequences of disobedience. | ||||||
74 | Do Paulin 1Thessaloninas 4:14- and John | 1 Cor 15:51 | ebrain | 179483 | ||
Further to my last post, it is allways important to read Scripture verses in their context. Have a look at Rev 19:19, and you will see that the event described here cannot possibly have anything to do with 1 Thes 4:14-17. |
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75 | Do Paulin 1Thessaloninas 4:14- and John | 1 Cor 15:51 | ebrain | 179481 | ||
I do not believe that the verses you quote refer to the same event, although it is possible that others who use this forum would disagree. That which follows might be of help. NASB John 14:3 "If I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and receive you to Myself, that where I am, there you may be also. AMPLIFIED John 14:3 And when (if) I go and make ready a place for you, I will come back again and will take you to Myself, that where I am you may be also. Question (short): Is the Raptur a real event? Question (full): Is the Rapture a real event? WHy is there so much controvery over it. Answer: Yes it is, please read John 14:2-3. also 1 st Thess 4:13-18, and 1 st Cor 15:51-58. The problem, is that some people think that the second advent is in two parts seperated in time, whilst others think that everything takes place at one moment in time. The question that I would like to ask is this. How is it possible for every eye to see the thief in the night, if there is only one event? Question (short): rapture unseen, 2nd advent seen by all Question (full): I understand the thief in the night is the rapture and the second advent in when christ returns and every eye will see him coming in the clouds on his white horse. right? Answer: Yes Subject: Is the Raptur a real event? Note: Hi Edwin, Does it actually say that every eye will see the thief? I believe this is an allegory for an unexpected event. As to Him who cometh with clouds, Hebrews 12 makes mention of the great cloud of witnesses as it refers to the Old Testament saints. The church I attend teaches that the rapture will happen before the Great Tribulation. It is separate and distinct from the rapture of the church. The rapture is the time when Jesus will be coming for His church. At His second coming, He will be coming with His church. I myself will wait in anticipation of what our Lord has in mind for His saints, and I prefer not to convince myself of a particular event on which the Scriptures are unclear. God's Blessings to you and yours, Tim Note: No there is no such verse, it is my way of drawing attention to the fact that there are two groups of verses, one group shows that the second comming will be very public, ie, "every eye will see Him". Whereas the other group of verses indicate that His Return will be the very opposite, ie, "like a theif in the night". These two sets of verses cannot possibly refer to the same event, therefore, there must be two seperate visits to earth by our Lord in respect of His second comming, one where He does not come down to the surface, but remains in the air above the ground, as He "raptures" His bride, the church, the other when He does come all the way back to the surface to carry out judgment. |
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76 | Hpw may years from Adam to Jesus | Gen 1:27 | ebrain | 179455 | ||
A rough estimate would place this at about 4000 years, but as Hank says, no one knows, and what does it matter anyway? | ||||||
77 | Did Jesus say this world was an illusion | Genesis | ebrain | 179312 | ||
As far as I am aware, there is no Scripture that indicates that Jesus said that this world is an illusion. | ||||||
78 | Corresponding books of matthew 26:36-45 | Matthew | ebrain | 179304 | ||
As far as the centre column of my NASB reference Bible is concerened, there is no Pauline connection with the Scripture passage in question. What I cannot understand is why you should ask this question? If you could give a reason, then perhaps I myself, or others on this Forum would be able to help You. |
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79 | Corresponding books of matthew 26:36-45 | Bible general Archive 3 | ebrain | 179301 | ||
As far as I am aware, there are no Scriptures that tell you how many hours Jesus prayed for, but then why would you want to know this? |
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80 | What does "remaining in Him" really mean | Mark 15:5 | ebrain | 179030 | ||
1Jo 3:9 every one who hath been begotten of God, sin he doth not, because his seed in him doth remain, and he is not able to sin, because of God he hath been begotten The above is "Young's Literal Translation", and as far as I am aware gives the correct interpretation of what John intended his readers to understand. I see no problem with this verse as I believe it to refer to the new nature that all christians have, and the new nature cannot sin, however, we all still retain the old nature as well, and that cannot do anything but sin. Paul recognized this problem, and describes it in some detail in Romans 7:14-25. His conclusion is "So then with the mind (the new nature) I myself serve the law of God, but with my flesh (the old nature) the law of sin". I trust this will be of help to you. ebrain. |
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